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Drug overview for TRELEGY ELLIPTA (fluticasone furoate/umeclidinium bromide/vilanterol trifenat):
Generic name: FLUTICASONE FUROATE/UMECLIDINIUM BROMIDE/VILANTEROL TRIFENAT (floo-TIK-a-sone/ue-ME-kli-DIN-ee-um/vye-LAN-ter-ol)
Drug class: Orally Inhaled Steroids
Therapeutic class: Respiratory Therapy Agents
Fluticasone furoate, umeclidinium bromide, and vilanterol trifenatate (fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol) is a fixed-dose triple combination preparation containing an inhaled synthetic trifluorinated corticosteroid (fluticasone), a long-acting muscarinic antagonist (umeclidinium), and a long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist (vilanterol).
No enhanced Uses information available for this drug.
Generic name: FLUTICASONE FUROATE/UMECLIDINIUM BROMIDE/VILANTEROL TRIFENAT (floo-TIK-a-sone/ue-ME-kli-DIN-ee-um/vye-LAN-ter-ol)
Drug class: Orally Inhaled Steroids
Therapeutic class: Respiratory Therapy Agents
Fluticasone furoate, umeclidinium bromide, and vilanterol trifenatate (fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol) is a fixed-dose triple combination preparation containing an inhaled synthetic trifluorinated corticosteroid (fluticasone), a long-acting muscarinic antagonist (umeclidinium), and a long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist (vilanterol).
No enhanced Uses information available for this drug.
DRUG IMAGES
TRELEGY ELLIPTA 100-62.5-25
TRELEGY ELLIPTA 200-62.5-25
The following indications for TRELEGY ELLIPTA (fluticasone furoate/umeclidinium bromide/vilanterol trifenat) have been approved by the FDA:
Indications:
Bronchospasm prevention with COPD
Maintenance therapy for asthma
Professional Synonyms:
COPD with bronchospasms prophylaxis
Therapy to achieve long-term asthma control
Indications:
Bronchospasm prevention with COPD
Maintenance therapy for asthma
Professional Synonyms:
COPD with bronchospasms prophylaxis
Therapy to achieve long-term asthma control
The following dosing information is available for TRELEGY ELLIPTA (fluticasone furoate/umeclidinium bromide/vilanterol trifenat):
Dosage of fluticasone furoate is expressed in terms of the furoate salt. Dosage of umeclidinium bromide is expressed in terms of umeclidinium. Dosage of vilanterol trifenatate is expressed in terms of vilanterol.
Fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol is supplied with a disposable plastic inhaler containing 2 foil strips, each with 30 blisters (or 14 blisters in the institutional package). One strip contains fluticasone furoate (100 or 200 mcg per blister), and the other strip contains a blend of umeclidinium and vilanterol (62.5 and 25 mcg per blister, respectively). A blister from each strip is used to create 1 dose.
After the inhaler is activated, the powder within both blisters is exposed and dispersed into the airstream created by the patient's inhalation. Using standardized in vitro testing at a flow rate of 60 L/minute for 4 seconds, the inhaler delivered 22 mcg of vilanterol, 92 or 184mcg of fluticasone furoate, and 55 mcg of umeclidinium. The precise amount of drug delivered to the lungs with each activation of the inhaler device depends on patient factors such as inspiratory flow.
Fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol is supplied with a disposable plastic inhaler containing 2 foil strips, each with 30 blisters (or 14 blisters in the institutional package). One strip contains fluticasone furoate (100 or 200 mcg per blister), and the other strip contains a blend of umeclidinium and vilanterol (62.5 and 25 mcg per blister, respectively). A blister from each strip is used to create 1 dose.
After the inhaler is activated, the powder within both blisters is exposed and dispersed into the airstream created by the patient's inhalation. Using standardized in vitro testing at a flow rate of 60 L/minute for 4 seconds, the inhaler delivered 22 mcg of vilanterol, 92 or 184mcg of fluticasone furoate, and 55 mcg of umeclidinium. The precise amount of drug delivered to the lungs with each activation of the inhaler device depends on patient factors such as inspiratory flow.
Administer fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol by oral inhalation once daily using a disposable inhaler that delivers powdered fluticasone, umeclidinium, and vilanterol in fixed combination from foil-wrapped blisters. Administer at the same time every day and do not use more than once every 24 hours. Prior to use, store the product in the original foil tray at room temperature in a dry place away from direct heat and sunlight; remove from tray immediately before initial use.
Document the date the tray is opened and the discard date (6 weeks after opening) on the inhaler label. The number of doses remaining in the inhaler is displayed on the counter. Before inhaling a dose, exhale completely and donot exhale into the mouthpiece of the inhaler.
Place the mouthpiece between the lips and inhale deeply through the inhaler with a steady, even breath; do not inhale through the nose. Remove inhaler from mouth, hold the breath for about 3-4 seconds (or as long as comfortable), then exhale slowly and gently. Do not administer another dose even if delivery of dose is not perceived.
Routine cleaning of the inhaler is not necessary, but the mouthpiece may be cleaned with dry tissue if desired. If a dose is missed, the patient should take it as soon as it is remembered. Instruct patients notto take more than 1 inhalation per day and to take the next dose at the usual time.
Document the date the tray is opened and the discard date (6 weeks after opening) on the inhaler label. The number of doses remaining in the inhaler is displayed on the counter. Before inhaling a dose, exhale completely and donot exhale into the mouthpiece of the inhaler.
Place the mouthpiece between the lips and inhale deeply through the inhaler with a steady, even breath; do not inhale through the nose. Remove inhaler from mouth, hold the breath for about 3-4 seconds (or as long as comfortable), then exhale slowly and gently. Do not administer another dose even if delivery of dose is not perceived.
Routine cleaning of the inhaler is not necessary, but the mouthpiece may be cleaned with dry tissue if desired. If a dose is missed, the patient should take it as soon as it is remembered. Instruct patients notto take more than 1 inhalation per day and to take the next dose at the usual time.
| DRUG LABEL | DOSING TYPE | DOSING INSTRUCTIONS |
|---|---|---|
| TRELEGY ELLIPTA 100-62.5-25 | Maintenance | Adults inhale 1 puff by inhalation route once daily at the same time each day |
| TRELEGY ELLIPTA 200-62.5-25 | Maintenance | Adults inhale 1 puff by inhalation route once daily at the same time each day |
No generic dosing information available.
The following drug interaction information is available for TRELEGY ELLIPTA (fluticasone furoate/umeclidinium bromide/vilanterol trifenat):
There are 1 contraindications.
These drug combinations generally should not be dispensed or administered to the same patient. A manufacturer label warning that indicates the contraindication warrants inclusion of a drug combination in this category, regardless of clinical evidence or lack of clinical evidence to support the contraindication.
| Drug Interaction | Drug Names |
|---|---|
| Desmopressin/Glucocorticoids SEVERITY LEVEL: 1-Contraindicated Drug Combination: This drug combination is contraindicated and generally should not be dispensed or administered to the same patient. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Glucocorticoids increase the risk of hyponatremia.(1-4) CLINICAL EFFECTS: Concurrent use of glucocorticoids may increase the risk of hyponatremia with desmopressin.(1-4) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: Predisposing factors for hyponatremia include: polydipsia, renal impairment (eGFR < 50 ml/min/1.73m2), illnesses that can cause fluid/electrolyte imbalances, age >=65, medications that cause water retention and/or increase the risk of hyponatremia (carbamazepine, chlorpromazine, lamotrigine, loop diuretics, NSAIDs, opioids, SSRIs, thiazide diuretics, and/or tricyclic antidepressants). PATIENT MANAGEMENT: The concurrent use of systemic or inhaled glucocorticoids with desmopressin is contraindicated.(1-4) Desmopressin may be initiated 3 days or 5 half-lives after glucocorticoid discontinuation, whichever is longer. If concurrent use is deemed medically necessary, make sure serum sodium levels are normal before beginning therapy and consider using the desmopressin nasal 0.83 mcg dose. Consider measuring serum sodium levels more frequently than the recommended intervals of: within 7 days of concurrent therapy initiation, one month after concurrent therapy initiation and periodically during treatment. Counsel patients to report symptoms of hyponatremia, which may include: headache, nausea/vomiting, feeling restless, fatigue, drowsiness, dizziness, muscle cramps, changes in mental state (confusion, decreased awareness/alertness), seizures, coma, and trouble breathing. Counsel patients to limit the amount of fluids they drink in the evening and night-time and to stop taking desmopressin if they develop a stomach/intestinal virus with nausea/vomiting or any nose problems (blockage, stuffy/runny nose, drainage).(1) DISCUSSION: In clinical trials of desmopressin for the treatment of nocturia, 4 of 5 patients who developed severe hyponatremia (serum sodium <= 125 mmol/L) were taking systemic or inhaled glucocorticoids. Three of these patients were also taking NSAIDs and one was receiving a thiazide diuretic.(2) Drugs associated with hyponatremia may increase the risk, including loop diuretics, carbamazepine, chlorpromazine, glucocorticoids, lamotrigine, NSAIDs, opioids, SSRIs, thiazide diuretics, and/or tricyclic antidepressants.(1,3-4) |
DDAVP, DESMOPRESSIN ACETATE, NOCDURNA |
There are 10 severe interactions.
These drug interactions can produce serious consequences in most patients. Actions required for severe interactions include, but are not limited to, discontinuing one or both agents, adjusting dosage, altering administration scheduling, and providing additional patient monitoring. Review the full interaction monograph for more information.
| Drug Interaction | Drug Names |
|---|---|
| Ergot Alkaloids/Sympathomimetics SEVERITY LEVEL: 2-Severe Interaction: Action is required to reduce the risk of severe adverse interaction. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Concurrent use of ergot alkaloids and sympathomimetics may result in additive or synergistic effect on peripheral blood vessels. CLINICAL EFFECTS: Concurrent use of ergot alkaloids and sympathomimetics may result in increased blood pressure due to peripheral vasoconstriction. PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: When possible, avoid the concurrent use of ergot alkaloids and sympathomimetics. If concurrent use is warranted, monitor blood pressure and for signs of vasoconstriction. Decreasing the dose of one or both drugs may be necessary. DISCUSSION: There have been reports of severe vasoconstriction resulting in gangrene in patients receiving intravenous ergonovine with dopamine or norepinephrine. |
DIHYDROERGOTAMINE MESYLATE, ERGOLOID MESYLATES, ERGOMAR, ERGOTAMINE TARTRATE, ERGOTAMINE-CAFFEINE, METHYLERGONOVINE MALEATE, METHYSERGIDE MALEATE, MIGERGOT, MIGRANAL, TRUDHESA |
| Selected Inhalation Anesthetic Agents/Sympathomimetics SEVERITY LEVEL: 2-Severe Interaction: Action is required to reduce the risk of severe adverse interaction. MECHANISM OF ACTION: The exact mechanism is unknown. The anesthetics produce conduction changes that increase impulse re-entry into the myocardial tissue.(1) The anesthetics' ability to precipitate arrhythmias is enhanced by elevated arterial blood pressure, tachycardia, hypercapnia, and/or hypoxia, events that stimulate the release of endogenous catecholamines.(1) CLINICAL EFFECTS: Concurrent use of inhalation anesthetic agents and sympathomimetics may result in ventricular arrhythmias or sudden blood pressure and heart rate increase during surgery.(2) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: Monitor blood pressure and avoid use of sympathomimetics in patients being treated with anesthetics on the day of surgery.(2) Intravenous use of epinephrine during surgery with halothane and related halogenated general anesthetics should be strongly discouraged. When intravenous epinephrine is necessary, nitrous oxide anesthesia supplemented with ether, muscle relaxants, or opioids should be used instead of halothane.(3,4) Epinephrine may safely be used subcutaneously with the following precautions: the patient is adequately ventilated to prevent hypoxia or respiratory acidosis; the total dose of epinephrine is limited to 100 mcg/10 minute period or 300 mcg/hour in adults, 3.5 mcg/Kg in infants, 2.5 mcg/Kg in children up to two years of age, and 1.45 mcg/Kg in children over two years of age; a minimum effective concentration of anesthetic is maintained; the drugs are not co-administered in patients with hypertension or other cardiovascular disorders; and the cardiac rhythm is continuously monitored during and after injection.(3-10) If arrhythmias occur after the administration of the epinephrine, the drugs of choice are lidocaine or propranolol, depending on the type of arrhythmia.(1) DISCUSSION: Administration of epinephrine during halothane anesthesia may may lead to serious ventricular arrhythmias.(3-6,11-18) This has occurred when epinephrine was administered intravenously,(6) when it was administered with lidocaine as a dental block,(11,14) or when it was administered supraperiosteally.(5) Norepinephrine has been shown to interact with halothane in a manner similar to epinephrine.(1) In two case reports, patients were given terbutaline (0.25 to 0.35 mg) for wheezing following induction of anesthesia with halothane. One patient's heart rate increased from 68 to 100 beats/minute, and the ECG showed premature ventricular contractions and bigeminy, while the other patient developed multiple unifocal premature ventricular contractions and bigeminy. The arrhythmias resolved in both patients following lidocaine administration.(19) Although not documented, isoproterenol causes effects on the heart similar to terbutaline(20) and would probably interact with halothane in a similar manner. Other inhalation anesthetics that increase the incidence of arrhythmias with epinephrine include chloroform,(20) methoxyflurane,(20) and enflurane.(12) A similar interaction may be expected between the other inhalation anesthetics and sympathomimetics. |
DESFLURANE, FORANE, ISOFLURANE, SEVOFLURANE, SUPRANE, TERRELL, ULTANE |
| Selected Steroids/Antiretroviral CYP3A4 Inhibitors SEVERITY LEVEL: 2-Severe Interaction: Action is required to reduce the risk of severe adverse interaction. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Antiretroviral CYP3A4 inhibitors may inhibit the metabolism of corticosteroids metabolized by CYP3A4. Dexamethasone may induce metabolism of agents that are substrates of CYP3A4.(1-13,50) CLINICAL EFFECTS: Concurrent use of antiretroviral CYP3A4 inhibitors may result in increased systemic exposure to and effects from corticosteroids metabolized by CYP3A4, including Cushing's syndrome and adrenal suppression. Concurrent dexamethasone may result in decreased levels and effectiveness of CYP3A4 substrates. PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: If possible, avoid concurrent therapy of betamethasone, budesonide, ciclesonide, fluticasone, dexamethasone, methylprednisolone, or triamcinolone with antiretroviral CYP3A4 inhibitors. Alternative corticosteroids that are less affected by CYP3A4 inhibitors should be considered, like beclomethasone, prednisone, and prednisolone. If concurrent therapy is warranted, patients should be closely monitored for systemic effects. The corticosteroid may need to be discontinued. Patients receiving concurrent therapy with dexamethasone and substrates of CYP3A4 should also be monitored for decreased effectiveness of the CYP3A4 substrate. The manufacturers of nasal fluticasone(14-16) and fluticasone for inhalation(17) state that concurrent use of fluticasone and atazanavir, indinavir, nelfinavir, ritonavir or saquinavir is not recommended. The US manufacturers of atazanavir,(1) fosamprenavir,(5) indinavir(6) and nelfinavir(8) recommend caution with concurrent use of inhaled or nasal fluticasone. Consider alternatives to fluticasone if long-term use is required. DISCUSSION: In a study, boceprevir (800 mg TID for 7 days) increased the area-under-curve (AUC) of a single dose of prednisone (40 mg) by 22%. The maximum concentration (Cmax) and AUC of prednisolone increased by 16% and 37%, respectively.(2) A study of 14 healthy adults found that concurrent use of ketoconazole with ciclesonide increased the AUC of ciclesonide's active metabolite, des-ciclesonide, by approximately 3.6-fold at steady state, while levels of ciclesonide remained unchanged. However, the study concluded that no dosage adjustments were required because ciclesonide has a very low potential to cause side effects.(18) A study in 18 healthy subjects examined the effects of ritonavir (100 mg twice daily) on fluticasone nasal spray (200 mcg daily). In most subjects, fluticasone was undetectable (<10 pg/ml) when administered alone. In subjects in whom fluticasone was detectable when given alone, Cmax and area-under-curve AUC averaged 11.9 pg/ml and 8.43 pg x hr/ml, respectively. With concurrent ritonavir, fluticasone Cmax and AUC increased to 318 pg/ml and 3102.6 pg x hr/ml, respectively.(7,11,14) This reflects increases in Cmax and AUC by 25-fold and 350-fold, respectively.(3) The cortisol AUC decreased by 86%.(6,14-16) In a study in 10 healthy subjects, ritonavir (200 mg twice daily for 4 and 14 days) increased the AUC of a single dose of prednisolone by 1.41-fold and 1.30-fold, respectively, after 4 days and 14 days of ritonavir.(19) There have been several case reports of Cushing's syndrome in patients treated concurrently with ritonavir and inhaled budesonide,(19-20) dexamethasone,(22) injectable triamcinolone,(23-26) nasal fluticasone.(28-46) Hepatitis has also been reported with concurrent budesonide and ritonavir.(47) In a study in 9 healthy subjects, mibefradil (50 mg once daily for 3 days) increased the AUC, Cmax, and elimination half-life of methylprednisolone by 3.8-fold, 1.8-fold, and 2.7-fold, respectively.(48) In a study in 8 healthy subjects, following nefazodone administration the following changes were seen with methylprednisolone: mean (+/-SD) area under the concentration-time curve was significantly higher (1393 +/- 343 vs. 2966 +/- 928 ug*h/L; P < 0.005), apparent clearance was lower (28.7 +/- 7.2 vs. 14.6 +/- 7.8 L/h; P < 0.02) and the terminal elimination half-life was longer (2.28 +/- 0.49 vs. 3.32 +/- 0.95 hours; P < 0.02).(49) Selected steroids linked to this monograph include: betamethasone, budesonide, ciclesonide, dexamethasone, fluticasone, methylprednisolone, and triamcinolone.(50) Selected CYP3A4 inhibitors and substrates linked to this monograph include: atazanavir, cobicistat, darunavir, fosamprenavir, indinavir, lenacapavir, lopinavir, nelfinavir, saquinavir, and tipranavir.(50) |
APTIVUS, ATAZANAVIR SULFATE, DARUNAVIR, EVOTAZ, FOSAMPRENAVIR CALCIUM, GENVOYA, KALETRA, LOPINAVIR-RITONAVIR, PREZCOBIX, PREZISTA, REYATAZ, STRIBILD, SUNLENCA, SYMTUZA, TYBOST, VIRACEPT |
| Pramlintide/Inhaled Anticholinergics SEVERITY LEVEL: 2-Severe Interaction: Action is required to reduce the risk of severe adverse interaction. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Pramlintide slows gastric emptying. Anticholinergics may result in additive or synergistic effects.(1) CLINICAL EFFECTS: Concurrent use of pramlintide and anticholinergics may result in additive or synergistic effects.(1) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: The manufacturer of pramlintide states that pramlintide therapy should not be considered in patients requiring the use of drugs that stimulate gastrointestinal motility or in patients taking drugs that alter gastrointestinal motility.(1) Patients receiving inhaled anticholinergics should be evaluated for signs of systemic effects, which may include constipation. DISCUSSION: Patients using drugs that alter gastrointestinal motility have not been studied in clinical trials for pramlintide.(1) Constipation has been reported as a side effect of inhaled anticholinergic agents such as ipratropium(2) and tiotropium.(3) |
SYMLINPEN 120, SYMLINPEN 60 |
| Radioactive Iodide/Agents that Affect Iodide SEVERITY LEVEL: 2-Severe Interaction: Action is required to reduce the risk of severe adverse interaction. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Many compounds can affect iodide protein binding and alter iodide pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics.(1) CLINICAL EFFECTS: Compounds that affect iodide pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics may impact the effectiveness of radioactive iodide.(1) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: Compounds that affect iodide pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics are expected to have the most impact during therapy using radioactive iodide. Diagnostic procedures would be expected to be impacted less. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: Discuss the use of agents that affect iodide pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics with the patient's oncologist.(1) Because indocyanine green contains sodium iodide, the iodine-binding capacity of thyroid tissue may be reduced for at least one week following administration. Do not perform radioactive iodine uptake studies for at least one week following administration of indocyanine green.(2) The manufacturer of iopamidol states administration may interfere with thyroid uptake of radioactive iodine and decrease therapeutic and diagnostic efficacy. Avoid thyroid therapy or testing for up to 6 weeks post administration of iopamidol.(3) DISCUSSION: Many agents interact with radioactive iodine. The average duration of effect is: anticoagulants - 1 week antihistamines - 1 week anti-thyroid drugs, e.g: carbimazole, methimazole, propylthiouracil - 3-5 days corticosteroids - 1 week iodide-containing medications, e.g: amiodarone - 1-6 months expectorants - 2 weeks Lugol solution - 3 weeks saturated solution of potassium iodine - 3 weeks vitamins - 10-14 days iodide-containing X-ray contrast agents - up to 1 year lithium - 4 weeks phenylbutazone - 1-2 weeks sulfonamides - 1 week thyroid hormones (natural or synthetic), e.g.: thyroxine - 4 weeks tri-iodothyronine - 2 weeks tolbutamide - 1 week topical iodide - 1-9 months (1) |
ADREVIEW, JEANATOPE, MEGATOPE, SODIUM IODIDE I-123 |
| Beta-2 Agonists/Non-Cardioselective Beta-Blockers SEVERITY LEVEL: 2-Severe Interaction: Action is required to reduce the risk of severe adverse interaction. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Non-cardioselective beta-blockers and beta-2 agonists may antagonize the effects of each other. CLINICAL EFFECTS: Diminished response to either the beta-agonist, beta-blocker, or both may occur. Beta-blockers may also induce bronchospasm. PREDISPOSING FACTORS: Patients receiving beta-2 agonists for the treatment of asthma may be more at risk for bronchospasm. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: If possible, avoid beta-blocker therapy in asthmatic patients requiring beta-2 agonist therapy. If beta-blocker therapy is required, use a cardio-selective beta-blocker. For timolol ophthalmic drops, counsel patients to apply pressure to the inner corner of the eye after administration to prevent systemic absorption. Monitor patients for decreased effects of either agent, such as increased need for/use of beta-2 agonists or increased heart rate or blood pressure. DISCUSSION: Many patients with asymptomatic or mild reactive airways disease tolerate beta-blockers well. Most patients with COPD do not have bronchospastic component to their illness and may be given beta-blockers. Heart failure treatment guidelines recommend beta-blockers in the presence of COPD. Non-selective beta-blockers have been shown to have a negative effect on lung function (FEV1) and airway hyperresponsiveness (AHR) in patients with asthma and COPD.(1) An open-label study using the nonselective beta blocker nadolol showed no effect on salbutamol in 10 patients with mild asthma not on controller therapy.(2) A study in 8 healthy men showed that long acting propranolol (160 mg) only effected airway dilation at the 200 mcg salbutamol dose. The 800 mcg and 1600 mcg dose were unaffected. However, penbutolol prevented any significant airway dilation with all doses of salbutamol.(3) In a double blind, three-way, crossover study, 44% (7/16 patients) of patients taking metoprolol showed a greater than 20% decrease in FEV1 compared to 19% (3 patients) after dilevalol and 6% (1 patient) after placebo. Dilevalol and metoprolol significantly inhibited isoproterenol response compared to placebo.(4) A double-blind, randomized, crossover study in 10 asthmatic patients showed that intravenous propranolol produced marked symptomatic bronchoconstriction. Only a slight but significant inhibition of bronchomotor sensitivity to isoproterenol was noted during esmolol infusion.(5) In 18 patients with reversible bronchial asthma, labetalol caused a significant increase in FEV1 and metoprolol caused a significant decrease in FEV1. Concurrent administration of isoproterenol and labetalol caused a further increase in FEV1. The effect of isoproterenol was decreased by metoprolol (100, 200mg).(6) In one study propranolol (0.06mg/kg IV) was shown to almost completely block the effects of isoproterenol in asthmatics. Metoprolol (0.12mg/kg IV) did not affect isoproterenol.(7) Studies have shown that cardioselective beta-blockers are safe for patients with asthma and COPD.(8,9,10) Nebivolol and celiprolol significantly decreased FEV1. Inhalation of albuterol (up to 800mcg) significantly improved FEV1, but the values after nebivolol and celiprolol administration were lower than the initial values.(11) Administration of metoprolol did not cause any respiratory problems in 9 asthmatic patients. There was no significant difference between the metoprolol and placebo groups in the respiratory response to an isoproterenol aerosol in 24 asthmatic patients.(12) Eight male asthmatic patients were given 10 mg bisoprolol, 20 mg bisoprolol, and 100 mg metoprolol. Both bisoprolol and metoprolol caused bronchoconstriction measured by a significant fall in PEFR (peak expiratory flow rate). Terbutaline was able to reverse bronchoconstriction in all patients.(13) A double blind, placebo-controlled study analyzed the use of atenolol 100mg, metoprolol 100mg, or acebutolol 400 mg in 8 asthmatic patients before and after exercise. All three drugs reduced significantly FEV1 and PEFR. Administration of terbutaline improved all respiratory indices.(14) A double-blind crossover trial in 10 asthmatic patients showed that a single IV dose of atenolol 3mg caused slight impairment of ventilatory function. A dose of salbutamol by inhalation was able to reverse the bronchial effect of atenolol.(15) Propranolol (80mg/day), oxprenolol (80mg/day), atenolol (100mg/day), and celiprolol 200mg/day were given to 10 asthmatic patients in a randomized, crossover design with a two week washout period between each drug. The non-beta 1 selective beta blockers (propranolol, oxprenolol) caused a significant reduction in FEV1 and inhibited the bronchodilator response to inhaled salbutamol. Atenolol and celiprolol (beta1 selective beta blockers) did not significantly affect respiratory function or antagonize salbutamol effects.(16) A double blind, randomized, within patient, placebo-controlled study compared the cardioselective beta-blocker atenolol to the non-selective propranolol. Atenolol caused a significantly less drop in FEV1 compared to propranolol. The effect of isoprenaline plus the beta blockers were also studied. Both atenolol and propranolol effected isoprenaline FEV1 dose response curves but the greatest displacement was seen with propranolol.(17) The pulmonary effects of celiprolol 200 mg, celiprolol 400mg, propranolol 40mg, atenolol 100 mg were evaluated in 34 asthmatic patients. Propranolol and atenolol caused significant reductions in pulmonary function. Propranolol pretreatment caused a significant reduction in the effect of the bronchodilator. Celiprolol did not antagonize the bronchodilators.(18) A double-blind, placebo controlled, randomized, crossover design study studied the effects of propranolol 80mg or celiprolol 200 or 400mg on pulmonary function. Propranolol produced a significant decrease in FEV1 and FVC. Celiprolol and placebo had similar results. The effect of aerosolized terbutaline was also measured. Even at supratherapeutic doses, terbutaline was unable to restore pulmonary function parameters to baseline levels after treatment with propranolol. Terbutaline caused further bronchodilation after administration of celiprolol.(19) Eleven asthmatic patients showed significant bronchoconstriction in small airways after propranolol 40mg and pindolol 2.5mg in a double blind, randomized trial. Large airways only showed bronchoconstriction with propranolol. Terbutaline 0.5mg subcutaneous was given after pretreatment with propranolol and pindolol. The bronchodilator effect of terbutaline on large airways was diminished after both propranolol and timolol.(20) |
BETAPACE, BETAPACE AF, BETIMOL, BRIMONIDINE TARTRATE-TIMOLOL, CARVEDILOL, CARVEDILOL ER, COMBIGAN, COREG, COREG CR, CORGARD, COSOPT, COSOPT PF, DORZOLAMIDE-TIMOLOL, HEMANGEOL, INDERAL LA, INDERAL XL, INNOPRAN XL, ISTALOL, LABETALOL HCL, LABETALOL HCL-WATER, NADOLOL, PINDOLOL, PROPRANOLOL HCL, PROPRANOLOL HCL ER, PROPRANOLOL-HYDROCHLOROTHIAZID, SOTALOL, SOTALOL AF, SOTALOL HCL, SOTYLIZE, TIMOLOL, TIMOLOL MALEATE, TIMOLOL-BIMATOPROST, TIMOLOL-BRIMONI-DORZOL-BIMATOP, TIMOLOL-BRIMONIDIN-DORZOLAMIDE, TIMOLOL-DORZOLAMIDE-BIMATOPRST, TIMOPTIC OCUDOSE |
| Cosyntropin/Agents Affecting Plasma Cortisol Levels SEVERITY LEVEL: 2-Severe Interaction: Action is required to reduce the risk of severe adverse interaction. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Agents affecting plasma cortisol levels may impact the accuracy of the cosyntropin diagnostic test.(1) CLINICAL EFFECTS: Concurrent use of agents affecting plasma cortisol levels may impact the accuracy of the cosyntropin diagnostic test.(1) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: The US manufacturer of cosyntropin states accuracy of diagnosis using the cosyntropin diagnostic test may be complicated by concomitant medications affecting plasma cortisol levels.(1) Agents affecting plasma cortisol levels and recommendation to stop prior to cosyntropin diagnostic test include: - Glucocorticoids: May elevate plasma cortisol levels. Stop these drugs on the day of testing. Long-acting glucocorticoids may need to be stopped for a longer period before testing. - Spironolactone: May elevate plasma cortisol levels. Stop spironolactone on the day of testing. - Estrogen: May elevate plasma total cortisol levels. Discontinue estrogen containing drugs 4 to 6 weeks prior to testing to allow cortisol binding globulin levels to return to levels within the reference range. Alternatively, concomitant measurement of cortisol binding globulin at the time of testing can be done; if cortisol binding globulin levels are elevated, plasma total cortisol levels are considered inaccurate.(1) DISCUSSION: Concurrent use of agents affecting plasma cortisol levels may impact the accuracy of the cosyntropin diagnostic test.(1) |
CORTROSYN, COSYNTROPIN |
| Iobenguane I 123/Agents that Affect Catecholamines SEVERITY LEVEL: 2-Severe Interaction: Action is required to reduce the risk of severe adverse interaction. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Many compounds that reduce catecholamine uptake or that deplete catecholamine stores may interfere with iobenguane uptake into cells.(1) CLINICAL EFFECTS: Compounds that reduce catecholamine uptake or that deplete catecholamine stores may interfere with imaging completed with iobenguane.(1) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: Discuss the use of agents that affect catecholamines. Discontinue drugs that reduce catecholamine uptake or deplete catecholamine stores prior to imaging with iobenguane. Before imaging with iobenguane, discontinue agents that affect catecholamines for at least 5 biological half-lives, as clinically tolerated.(1) DISCUSSION: Many agents may reduce catecholamine uptake or deplete catecholamine stores.(1) Examples include: - CNS stimulants or amphetamines (e.g. cocaine, methylphenidate, dextroamphetamine) - norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitors (e.g. phentermine) - norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibitors (e.g. tramadol) - monoamine oxidase inhibitors (e.g. phenelzine, linezolid) - central monoamine depleting drugs (e.g. reserpine) - non-select beta adrenergic blocking drugs (e.g. labetalol) - alpha agonists or alpha/beta agonists (e.g. pseudoephedrine, phenylephrine, ephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, naphazoline) - tricyclic antidepressants or norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (e.g. amitriptyline, bupropion, duloxetine, mirtazapine, venlafaxine) - botanicals that may inhibit reuptake of norepinephrine, serotonin or dopamine (e.g. ephedra, ma huang, St. John's Wort, yohimbine) |
ADREVIEW |
| Selected Steroids/Selected Strong CYP3A4 Inhibitors SEVERITY LEVEL: 2-Severe Interaction: Action is required to reduce the risk of severe adverse interaction. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Strong CYP3A4 inhibitors may inhibit the metabolism of corticosteroids metabolized by CYP3A4. CLINICAL EFFECTS: Concurrent use of strong CYP3A4 inhibitors may result in increased systemic exposure to and effects from corticosteroids metabolized by CYP3A4, including Cushing's syndrome and adrenal suppression. PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: If possible, avoid concurrent therapy between betamethasone, budesonide, ciclesonide, fluticasone, dexamethasone, methylprednisolone, or triamcinolone and strong CYP3A4 inhibitors. Alternative corticosteroids that are less affected by CYP3A4 inhibitors should be considered, like beclomethasone, prednisone, and prednisolone. If concurrent therapy is warranted, patients should be closely monitored for systemic effects. The corticosteroid may need to be discontinued. DISCUSSION: In a study, boceprevir (800 mg TID for 7 days) increased the area-under-curve (AUC) of a single dose of prednisone (40 mg) by 22%. The maximum concentration (Cmax) and AUC of prednisolone increased by 16% and 37%, respectively.(3) A study of 14 healthy adults found that concurrent use of ketoconazole with ciclesonide increased the AUC of ciclesonide's active metabolite, des-ciclesonide, by approximately 3.6-fold at steady state, while levels of ciclesonide remained unchanged. However, the study concluded that no dosage adjustments were required because ciclesonide has a very low potential to cause side effects.(4) A study in 18 healthy subjects examined the effects of ritonavir (100 mg twice daily) on fluticasone nasal spray (200 mcg daily). In most subjects, fluticasone was undetectable (<10 pg/ml) when administered alone. In subjects in whom fluticasone was detectable when given alone, Cmax and area-under-curve AUC averaged 11.9 pg/ml and 8.43 pg x hr/ml, respectively. With concurrent ritonavir, fluticasone Cmax and AUC increased to 318 pg/ml and 3102.6 pg x hr/ml, respectively.(6-8) This reflects increases in Cmax and AUC by 25-fold and 350-fold, respectively.(6) The cortisol AUC decreased by 86%.(10-13) In a study in 10 healthy subjects, ritonavir (200 mg twice daily for 4 and 14 days) increased the AUC of a single dose of prednisolone by 1.41-fold and 1.30-fold, respectively, after 4 days and 14 days of ritonavir.(14) There have been several case reports of Cushing's syndrome in patients treated concurrently with ritonavir and inhaled budesonide,(15-16) dexamethasone,(17) injectable triamcinolone,(18-21) nasal fluticasone.(23-41) Hepatitis has also been reported with concurrent budesonide and ritonavir.(42) In a study in 9 healthy subjects, mibefradil (50 mg once daily for 3 days) increased the AUC, Cmax, and elimination half-life of methylprednisolone by 3.8-fold, 1.8-fold, and 2.7-fold, respectively.(43) In a study in 8 healthy subjects, following nefazodone administration the following changes were seen with methylprednisolone: mean (+/-SD) area under the concentration-time curve was significantly higher (1393 +/- 343 vs. 2966 +/- 928 ug*h/L; P < 0.005), apparent clearance was lower (28.7 +/- 7.2 vs. 14.6 +/- 7.8 L/h; P < 0.02) and the terminal elimination half-life was longer (2.28 +/- 0.49 vs. 3.32 +/- 0.95 hours; P < 0.02).(44) Selected steroids linked to this monograph include: betamethasone, budesonide, ciclesonide, dexamethasone, fluticasone, methylprednisolone, and triamcinolone.(45) Selected CYP3A4 inhibitors linked to this monograph include: adagrasib, boceprevir, ceritinib, lonafarnib, mibefradil, nefazodone, ribociclib, paritaprevir, telaprevir, and tucatinib.(1-2,45) |
KISQALI, KRAZATI, NEFAZODONE HCL, TUKYSA, ZOKINVY, ZYKADIA |
| Sodium Iodide I 131/Agents that Affect Iodide SEVERITY LEVEL: 2-Severe Interaction: Action is required to reduce the risk of severe adverse interaction. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Many compounds can affect iodide protein binding and alter iodide pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics.(1,2) CLINICAL EFFECTS: Compounds that affect iodide pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics may impact the effectiveness of radioactive iodide.(1,2) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: Compounds that affect iodide pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics are expected to have the most impact during therapy using radioactive iodide. Diagnostic procedures would be expected to be impacted less. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: Discuss the use of agents that affect iodide pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics with the patient's oncologist.(1,2) Because indocyanine green contains sodium iodide, the iodine-binding capacity of thyroid tissue may be reduced for at least one week following administration. Do not perform radioactive iodine uptake studies for at least one week following administration of indocyanine green.(3) The manufacturer of iopamidol states administration may interfere with thyroid uptake of radioactive iodine and decrease therapeutic and diagnostic efficacy. Avoid thyroid therapy or testing for up to 6 weeks post administration of iopamidol.(4) DISCUSSION: Many agents interact with radioactive iodine. The average duration of effect is: anticoagulants - 1 week antihistamines - 1 week anti-thyroid drugs, e.g: carbimazole, methimazole, propylthiouracil - 3-5 days corticosteroids - 1 week iodide-containing medications, e.g: amiodarone - 1-6 months expectorants - 2 weeks Lugol solution - 3 weeks saturated solution of potassium iodine - 3 weeks vitamins - 10-14 days iodide-containing X-ray contrast agents - up to 1 year lithium - 4 weeks phenylbutazone - 1-2 weeks sulfonamides - 1 week thyroid hormones (natural or synthetic), e.g.: thyroxine - 4 weeks tri-iodothyronine - 2 weeks tolbutamide - 1 week topical iodide - 1-9 months (1,2) |
HICON, SODIUM IODIDE I-131 |
There are 9 moderate interactions.
The clinician should assess the patient’s characteristics and take action as needed. Actions required for moderate interactions include, but are not limited to, discontinuing one or both agents, adjusting dosage, altering administration.
| Drug Interaction | Drug Names |
|---|---|
| Corticosteroids/Selected Macrolide Antibiotics SEVERITY LEVEL: 3-Moderate Interaction: Assess the risk to the patient and take action as needed. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Some macrolide antibiotics may inhibit the metabolism of corticosteroids. CLINICAL EFFECTS: Concurrent use of some macrolide antibiotics may result in elevated levels and clinical effects of corticosteroids. Immunosuppression and Cushing's syndrome have been reported during concurrent therapy, including therapy with inhaled corticosteroids. PREDISPOSING FACTORS: Concurrent administration of enzyme inducing drugs. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: Patients receiving concurrent therapy with corticosteroids and macrolide antibiotics should be monitored for increased corticosteroid affects. The dosage of the corticosteroid may need to be adjusted or the macrolide antibiotic may need to be discontinued. One US manufacturer of inhaled fluticasone states that the concurrent use of macrolide antibiotics is not recommended.(1) DISCUSSION: In a study in 10 steroid-dependent asthmatics, concurrent troleandomycin (1 gram/day) decreased methylprednisolone clearance by 60%. All subjects developed adverse effects typical of excessive corticosteroid use such as weight gain, fluid retention, and cushingoid features.(2) Other studies and reports have shown increased methylprednisolone levels with concurrent troleandomycin,(3-10) in some of these reports, the interaction was used to lower steroid dosages.(6-10) There is one report of fatal varicella infection in a patient receiving concurrent therapy with methylprednisolone and troleandomycin.(11) Cushing's syndrome has been reported with concurrent inhaled budesonide and clarithromycin.(12) Psychosis(13) and mania(14) have been reported with concurrent prednisone and clarithromycin. Erythromycin(3-9) and troleandomycin(9) have also been reported to interact with methylprednisolone. |
CLARITHROMYCIN, CLARITHROMYCIN ER, E.E.S. 200, E.E.S. 400, ERY-TAB, ERYPED 200, ERYPED 400, ERYTHROCIN LACTOBIONATE, ERYTHROCIN STEARATE, ERYTHROMYCIN, ERYTHROMYCIN ESTOLATE, ERYTHROMYCIN ETHYLSUCCINATE, ERYTHROMYCIN LACTOBIONATE, LANSOPRAZOL-AMOXICIL-CLARITHRO, OMECLAMOX-PAK, VOQUEZNA TRIPLE PAK |
| Quinolones/Corticosteroids SEVERITY LEVEL: 3-Moderate Interaction: Assess the risk to the patient and take action as needed. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Quinolone-induced arthropathy is a class effect of the quinolones.(1) Exactly how corticosteroid use increases the risk of tendon rupture is unknown. CLINICAL EFFECTS: Concurrent use of quinolones and corticosteroids may increase the risk of tendonitis and/or tendon rupture. This affect is most common in the Achilles tendon, but has been reported in the rotator cuff (shoulder), hand, biceps, thumb, and other tendons.(2-9) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: Risk factors for tendinitis and tendon rupture include age greater than 60; a history of kidney, heart, or lung transplantation, strenuous physical activity, renal failure, and previous tendon disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: Quinolone use should be discontinued if the patient experiences pain, inflammation, or rupture of a tendon. Patients should be instructed to rest and refrain from exercise until the diagnosis of tendonitis tendon rupture has been excluded.(2-9) DISCUSSION: Ruptures of the shoulder, hand, Achilles tendon, or other tendons that required surgical repair or resulted in prolonged disability have been reported in patients receiving ciprofloxacin,(2) gatifloxacin,(3) levofloxacin,(4) lomefloxacin,(5) moxifloxacin,(6) nalidixic acid,(7) norfloxacin,(8) and ofloxacin.(9) A retrospective review of the IMS Health database examined quinolone use use from July 1, 1992 to June 30, 1998. The adjusted relative risk of tendon disorder with concurrent quinolone use was 1.9. Relative risk increased to 3.2 in patients aged 60 or older compared to 0.9 in patients aged less than 60. In patients aged 60 or older who used corticosteroids and quinolones concurrently, relative risk increased to 6.2.(10) In contrast, another retrospective review examined patients from a health insurance claims database and found no apparent effect from concurrent quinolone and corticosteroid use.(11) In a review of the follow-up to 42 spontaneously reported case of quinolone-associated tendon disorders in the Netherlands between January, 1988 and January, 1998, risk factors for tendon disorders included age older than 60, oral corticosteroid use, and existing joint problems.(12) In a review of the Swiss Drug Monitoring system, four of seven cases of levofloxacin-associated tendon problems also involved concurrent oral or inhaled corticosteroids.(13) In a review of the Medline database from 1966-2001, 98 case reports of tendinopathy associated with quinolones were located. Thirty-two (32.7%) of the patients had received systemic or inhaled corticosteroids before and during quinolone therapy. Of the 40 patients who suffered a tendon rupture, 21 (52.5%) were receiving corticosteroids.(14) Other authors have reported cases of tendon disorders in patients receiving concurrent corticosteroids and ciprofloxacin,(15) levofloxacin, (16-20) and ofloxacin.(21) |
AVELOX IV, BAXDELA, CIPRO, CIPROFLOXACIN, CIPROFLOXACIN HCL, CIPROFLOXACIN-D5W, GATIFLOXACIN SESQUIHYDRATE, LEVOFLOXACIN, LEVOFLOXACIN HEMIHYDRATE, LEVOFLOXACIN-D5W, MOXIFLOXACIN, MOXIFLOXACIN HCL, NALIDIXIC ACID, OFLOXACIN |
| Selected Corticosteroids/Selected Azole Antifungal Agents SEVERITY LEVEL: 3-Moderate Interaction: Assess the risk to the patient and take action as needed. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Itraconazole, ketoconazole, posaconazole, and voriconazole may inhibit the CYP3A4 mediated metabolism of some corticosteroids, resulting in increased systemic exposure. Itraconazole and ketoconazole may also suppress endogenous cortisol output. CLINICAL EFFECTS: Concurrent use of itraconazole, ketoconazole, posaconazole, or voriconazole may result in elevated levels of and effects from the corticosteroid, including Cushing syndrome. These effects have been seen with systemic as well as inhaled corticosteroids. PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: Patients should be carefully monitored with concurrent administration of these agents, or when itraconazole, ketoconazole, posaconazole, or voriconazole is added to corticosteroid therapy. The dose of the corticosteroid may need to be adjusted or alternative therapy considered. DISCUSSION: In a randomized, double-blind, cross-over study in 10 healthy subjects, pretreatment with itraconazole (200 mg daily for 5 days) increased the area-under-curve (AUC) and maximum concentration (Cmax) of a single inhaled dose of budesonide (1000 mcg) by 4.2-fold and 1.6-fold, respectively. Suppression of cortisol production was increased 43%.(1) A study examined adrenal insufficiency in 25 cystic fibrosis patients treated with itraconazole and inhaled budesonide and in 12 patients receiving itraconazole alone. Eleven of the 25 patients receiving concurrent itraconazole and budesonide and none of the patients receiving only itraconazole had adrenal insufficiency.(2) There are case reports of Cushing syndrome in patients receiving concurrent itraconazole (range 200 mg to 800 mg daily) and inhaled budesonide (range 400 mcg to 1400 mcg daily).(3-5) The concurrent use of ketoconazole has been shown to increase budesonide area-under-curve (AUC) by eight-fold.(6) In a study in eight healthy subjects, the simultaneous administration of ketoconazole increased budesonide AUC by 6.5-fold. Administering the two agents 12 hours apart increased budesonide AUC by 3.8-fold.(7) There are case reports of Cushing syndrome in patients receiving concurrent itraconazole (range 100 mg to 400 mg daily) and inhaled fluticasone (range 250 mcg to 1.5 mg daily).(8,9) In a randomized, placebo-controlled, crossover, four phase study in 8 healthy subjects, itraconazole decreased the systemic clearance of intravenous dexamethasone by 68%, increased the area-under-curve (AUC) of dexamethasone by 3.3-fold, and prolonged its half-life by 3.2-fold. The AUC of oral dexamethasone was increased 3.7-fold, maximum concentration (Cmax) was increased by 1.7-fold, and the elimination half-life was prolonged 2.8-fold by itraconazole.(10) In a randomized, cross-over study in 14 healthy subjects, pretreatment with itraconazole (400 mg Day 1, 200 mg Days 2-4) increased the AUC of a single oral dose of methylprednisolone by 1.5-fold. Cortisol levels were significantly lower after concurrent therapy than with methylprednisolone alone.(11) There is a case report of Cushing syndrome following the addition of itraconazole (400 mg daily) to methylprednisolone (12 mg/day).(12) In a study in 6 healthy subjects, pretreatment with ketoconazole (200 mg daily) increased the AUC of a single intravenous dose of methylprednisolone (20 mg) by 135% and decreased its clearance by 60%. Concurrent ketoconazole also increased the reduction in 24-hour cortisol AUC and suppressed morning cortisol concentrations.(13) In a study in 8 healthy subjects, ketoconazole decreased the clearance of methylprednisolone by 46% and increased mean residence time by 37%.(14) In a randomized, cross-over study in 14 healthy subjects, pretreatment with itraconazole (400 mg Day 1, 200 mg Days 2-4) had no effect on the pharmacokinetics of a single oral dose of prednisone (60 mg).(11) In a randomized, cross-over study in 6 healthy subjects, pretreatment with ketoconazole (200 mg daily for 6 days) had no effect on the pharmacokinetics of a single intravenous dose of prednisolone (14.8 mg).(15) In a randomized, double-blind, cross-over study in 10 healthy subjects, pretreatment with itraconazole (200 mg daily for 4 days) increased the AUC and half-life of a single oral dose of prednisolone (20 mg) by 24% and 29%, respectively.(16) In a study, concurrent oral ketoconazole increased the AUC of des-ciclesonide from orally inhaled ciclesonide by 3.6-fold. There were no changes in ciclesonide levels.(17) In a study in 24 healthy subjects, subjects were randomized to receive either ketoconazole (200 mg BID) or placebo on Days 4-9 of a a 9 day course of mometasone (400 mcg BID). No subject had mometasone levels greater than 150 pcg/ml on Day 3. Four of 12 subjects who received ketoconazole had mometasone Cmax levels greater than 200 mcg/ml on Day 9. Plasma cortisol levels appeared to decrease as well.(18) In a cross-over study in 15 healthy subjects, subjects were randomized to receive fluticasone furoate and vilanterol on days 5-11 with either ketoconazole (200mg once daily) or placebo for days 1-11 with a washout period of 7-14 days. Fluticasone furoate AUC was increased by 36%, Cmax was increased by 33%, and decreased systemic cortisol levels by 27%. There were no effects on heart rate and blood potassium levels. There was a small increase in QTc which was 7.6ms greater when compared to placebo; however, ketoconazole has been reported to increase QTc by 5-6ms. Vilanterol AUC was increased by 65% and Cmax was increased by 22%. There were no effects on heart rate and blood potassium levels. No serious adverse events occurred and no subjects withdrew from the study due to adverse events. The most common adverse event reported was headache. (19) Coadministration of orally inhaled fluticasone (1000 mcg) and ketoconazole (200 mg once daily) resulted in a 1.9-fold increase in plasma fluticasone exposure and a 45% decrease in plasma cortisol AUC.(20) There is a case report of Cushing syndrome following the addition of voriconazole (200 mg twice daily for 21 days for 2 courses) to budesonide,(21) as well as voriconazole added to intranasal mometasone(22) and inhaled fluticasone.(22) There is a case report of Cushing syndrome following the addition of posaconazole (200 mg three times daily) to inhaled fluticasone.(23) |
ITRACONAZOLE, ITRACONAZOLE MICRONIZED, KETOCONAZOLE, NOXAFIL, POSACONAZOLE, SPORANOX, TOLSURA, VFEND, VFEND IV, VORICONAZOLE |
| Solid Oral Potassium Tablets/Inhaled Anticholinergics SEVERITY LEVEL: 3-Moderate Interaction: Assess the risk to the patient and take action as needed. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Concentrated potassium may damage the lining of the GI tract. Anticholinergics delay gastric emptying, resulting in the potassium product remaining in the gastrointestinal tract for a longer period of time.(1-16) CLINICAL EFFECTS: Use of solid oral dosage forms of potassium in patients treated with inhaled anticholinergics could potentially result in gastrointestinal erosions, ulcers, stenosis and bleeding.(1-16) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: Diseases or conditions which may increase risk for GI damage include: preexisting dysphagia, strictures, cardiomegaly, diabetic gastroparesis, elderly status, or insufficient oral intake to allow dilution of potassium.(1-10,21) Other drugs which may add to risk for GI damage include: nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), bisphosphonates, or tetracyclines.(21) PATIENT MANAGEMENT: Regulatory agency and manufacturer recommendations regarding this interaction: - In the US, all solid oral dosage forms (including tablets and extended release capsules) of potassium are contraindicated in patients receiving anticholinergics at sufficient dosages to result in systemic effects.(2-8) Patients receiving such anticholinergic therapy should use a liquid form of potassium chloride.(2) - In Canada, solid oral potassium is contraindicated in any patient with a cause for arrest or delay in tablet/capsule passage through the gastrointestinal tract and the manufacturers recommend caution with concurrent anticholinergic medications.(1,9-10) Evaluate each patient for predisposing factors which may increase risk for GI damage. In patients with multiple risk factors for harm, consider use of liquid potassium supplements, if tolerated. For patients receiving concomitant therapy, assure any potassium dose form is taken after meals with a large glass of water or other fluid. To decrease potassium concentration in the GI tract, limit each dose to 20 meq; if more than 20 meq daily is required, give in divided doses.(2) If concurrent therapy is warranted, monitor patients receiving concurrent therapy for signs of blood loss, including decreased hemoglobin, hematocrit, fecal occult blood, and/or decreased blood pressure and promptly evaluate patients with any symptoms. Patients should be instructed to immediately report any difficulty swallowing, abdominal pain, distention, severe vomiting, or gastrointestinal bleeding. Instruct patients to report any signs and symptoms of bleeding, such as unusual bleeding from the gums or nose; unusual bruising; red or black, tarry stools; red, pink or dark brown urine; acute abdominal or joint pain and/or swelling. DISCUSSION: In clinical trials, there was a higher incidence of gastric and duodenal lesions in patients receiving a high dose of a wax-matrix controlled-release formulation with a concurrent anticholinergic agent. Some lesions were asymptomatic and not accompanied by bleeding, as shown by a lack of positive Hemoccult tests.(1-17) Several studies suggest that the incidence of gastric and duodenal lesions may be less with the microencapsulated formulation of potassium chloride.(14-17) Constipation has been reported as a side effect of inhaled anticholinergic agents such as ipratropium(22) and tiotropium.(23) |
KLOR-CON 10, KLOR-CON 8, KLOR-CON M10, KLOR-CON M15, KLOR-CON M20, POTASSIUM CHLORIDE, POTASSIUM CITRATE ER, UROCIT-K |
| Solid Oral Potassium Capsules/Inhaled Anticholinergics SEVERITY LEVEL: 3-Moderate Interaction: Assess the risk to the patient and take action as needed. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Concentrated potassium may damage the lining of the GI tract. Anticholinergics delay gastric emptying, resulting in the potassium product remaining in the gastrointestinal tract for a longer period of time.(1-16) CLINICAL EFFECTS: Use of solid oral dosage forms of potassium in patients treated with inhaled anticholinergics could potentially result in gastrointestinal erosions, ulcers, stenosis and bleeding.(1-16) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: Diseases or conditions which may increase risk for GI damage include: preexisting dysphagia, strictures, cardiomegaly, diabetic gastroparesis, elderly status, or insufficient oral intake to allow dilution of potassium.(1-10,21) Other drugs which may add to risk for GI damage include: nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), bisphosphonates, or tetracyclines.(21) PATIENT MANAGEMENT: Regulatory agency and manufacturer recommendations regarding this interaction: - In the US, all solid oral dosage forms (including tablets and extended release capsules) of potassium are contraindicated in patients receiving anticholinergics at sufficient dosages to result in systemic effects.(2-8) Patients receiving such anticholinergic therapy should use a liquid form of potassium chloride.(2) - In Canada, solid oral potassium is contraindicated in any patient with a cause for arrest or delay in tablet/capsule passage through the gastrointestinal tract and the manufacturers recommend caution with concurrent anticholinergic medications.(1,9-10) Evaluate each patient for predisposing factors which may increase risk for GI damage. In patients with multiple risk factors for harm, consider use of liquid potassium supplements, if tolerated. For patients receiving concomitant therapy, assure any potassium dose form is taken after meals with a large glass of water or other fluid. To decrease potassium concentration in the GI tract, limit each dose to 20 meq; if more than 20 meq daily is required, give in divided doses.(2) If concurrent therapy is warranted, monitor patients receiving concurrent therapy for signs of blood loss, including decreased hemoglobin, hematocrit, fecal occult blood, and/or decreased blood pressure and promptly evaluate patients with any symptoms. Patients should be instructed to immediately report any difficulty swallowing, abdominal pain, distention, severe vomiting, or gastrointestinal bleeding. Instruct patients to report any signs and symptoms of bleeding, such as unusual bleeding from the gums or nose; unusual bruising; red or black, tarry stools; red, pink or dark brown urine; acute abdominal or joint pain and/or swelling. DISCUSSION: In clinical trials, there was a higher incidence of gastric and duodenal lesions in patients receiving a high dose of a wax-matrix controlled-release formulation with a concurrent anticholinergic agent. Some lesions were asymptomatic and not accompanied by bleeding, as shown by a lack of positive Hemoccult tests.(1-17) Several studies suggest that the incidence of gastric and duodenal lesions may be less with the microencapsulated formulation of potassium chloride.(14-17) Constipation has been reported as a side effect of inhaled anticholinergic agents such as ipratropium(22) and tiotropium.(23) |
POTASSIUM CHLORIDE |
| Inhaled Direct-Acting Sympathomimetics/Tricyclic Compounds SEVERITY LEVEL: 3-Moderate Interaction: Assess the risk to the patient and take action as needed. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Unknown. However, it is speculated that direct-acting sympathomimetic amines have an enhanced effect due to tricyclic blockage of norepinephrine reuptake. CLINICAL EFFECTS: Increased effect of direct acting sympathomimetics. PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: The concurrent use of inhaled sympathomimetics and tricyclic compounds or the use of these agents within 14 days of each other should be approached with extreme caution. DISCUSSION: Epinephrine and other direct-acting sympathomimetic amines exert enhanced cardiovascular effects (e.g., arrhythmias, hypertension, and tachycardia) in individuals concurrently receiving or previously treated with tricyclic antidepressants. Protriptyline, amitriptyline, and desipramine have also been reported to interact with direct-acting sympathomimetics. Similarity between cyclobenzaprine and the tricyclic antidepressants consideration of tricyclic antidepressant interactions for cyclobenzaprine. |
AMITRIPTYLINE HCL, AMOXAPINE, AMRIX, ANAFRANIL, CHLORDIAZEPOXIDE-AMITRIPTYLINE, CLOMIPRAMINE HCL, CYCLOBENZAPRINE HCL, CYCLOBENZAPRINE HCL ER, CYCLOPAK, CYCLOTENS, DESIPRAMINE HCL, DOXEPIN HCL, FEXMID, IMIPRAMINE HCL, IMIPRAMINE PAMOATE, NOPIOID-LMC KIT, NORPRAMIN, NORTRIPTYLINE HCL, PAMELOR, PERPHENAZINE-AMITRIPTYLINE, PROTRIPTYLINE HCL, SILENOR, TRIMIPRAMINE MALEATE |
| Methacholine/Beta-Agonists; Anticholinergics; Theophylline SEVERITY LEVEL: 3-Moderate Interaction: Assess the risk to the patient and take action as needed. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Beta-agonists, anticholinergics, and theophylline may inhibit the action of methacholine on the airway.(1) CLINICAL EFFECTS: The result of the methacholine challenge test may not be accurate.(1) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: The following drugs should be held before a methacholine challenge for the the duration indicated:(1) - short-acting beta-agonists: 6 hours - long-acting beta-agonists: 36 hours - short-acting anti-cholinergics: 12 hours - long-acting anti-cholinergics: at least 168 hours (7 days) - oral theophylline: 12-48 hours DISCUSSION: Beta-agonists, anticholinergics, and theophylline may inhibit the action of methacholine on the airway and cause inaccurate test results. |
METHACHOLINE CHLORIDE, PROVOCHOLINE |
| Selected Corticosteroids/Levoketoconazole SEVERITY LEVEL: 3-Moderate Interaction: Assess the risk to the patient and take action as needed. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Levoketoconazole may inhibit the CYP3A4 mediated metabolism of some corticosteroids, resulting in increased systemic exposure. Levoketoconazole may also suppress endogenous cortisol output. Levoketoconazole is the enantiomer of ketoconazole. CLINICAL EFFECTS: Concurrent use of levoketoconazole may result in elevated levels of and effects from the corticosteroid, including Cushing syndrome. These effects have been seen with systemic as well as inhaled corticosteroids. PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: Patients should be carefully monitored with concurrent administration of these agents, or when levoketoconazole is added to corticosteroid therapy. The dose of the corticosteroid may need to be adjusted or alternative therapy considered. DISCUSSION: The concurrent use of ketoconazole has been shown to increase budesonide area-under-curve (AUC) by eight-fold. In a study in eight healthy subjects, the simultaneous administration of ketoconazole increased budesonide AUC by 6.5-fold. Administering the two agents 12 hours apart increased budesonide AUC by 3.8-fold. In a study in 6 healthy subjects, pretreatment with ketoconazole (200 mg daily) increased the AUC of a single intravenous dose of methylprednisolone (20 mg) by 135% and decreased its clearance by 60%. Concurrent ketoconazole also increased the reduction in 24-hour cortisol AUC and suppressed morning cortisol concentrations. In a study in 8 healthy subjects, ketoconazole decreased the clearance of methylprednisolone by 46% and increased mean residence time by 37%. In a randomized, cross-over study in 6 healthy subjects, pretreatment with ketoconazole (200 mg daily for 6 days) had no effect on the pharmacokinetics of a single intravenous dose of prednisolone (14.8 mg). In a study, concurrent oral ketoconazole increased the AUC of des-ciclesonide from orally inhaled ciclesonide by 3.6-fold. There were no changes in ciclesonide levels. In a study in 24 healthy subjects, subjects were randomized to receive either ketoconazole (200 mg BID) or placebo on Days 4-9 of a a 9 day course of mometasone (400 mcg BID). No subject had mometasone levels greater than 150 pcg/ml on Day 3. Four of 12 subjects who received ketoconazole had mometasone Cmax levels greater than 200 mcg/ml on Day 9. Plasma cortisol levels appeared to decrease as well. In a cross-over study in 15 healthy subjects, subjects were randomized to receive fluticasone furoate and vilanterol on days 5-11 with either ketoconazole (200mg once daily) or placebo for days 1-11 with a washout period of 7-14 days. Fluticasone furoate AUC was increased by 36%, Cmax was increased by 33%, and decreased systemic cortisol levels by 27%. There were no effects on heart rate and blood potassium levels. There was a small increase in QTc which was 7.6ms greater when compared to placebo; however, ketoconazole has been reported to increase QTc by 5-6ms. Vilanterol AUC was increased by 65% and Cmax was increased by 22%. There were no effects on heart rate and blood potassium levels. No serious adverse events occurred and no subjects withdrew from the study due to adverse events. The most common adverse event reported was headache. Coadministration of orally inhaled fluticasone (1000 mcg) and ketoconazole (200 mg once daily) resulted in a 1.9-fold increase in plasma fluticasone exposure and a 45% decrease in plasma cortisol AUC. |
RECORLEV |
| Selected Steroids/Nirmatrelvir-Ritonavir SEVERITY LEVEL: 3-Moderate Interaction: Assess the risk to the patient and take action as needed. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Nirmatrelvir/ritonavir may inhibit the metabolism of corticosteroids metabolized by CYP3A4.(1) CLINICAL EFFECTS: Nirmatrelvir/ritonavir may result in increased systemic exposure to and effects from corticosteroids metabolized by CYP3A4.(1) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: Coadministration with corticosteroids of all routes of administration of which exposures are significantly increased by strong CYP3A4 inhibitors can increase the risk of Cushing's syndrome and adrenal suppression. However, the risk of Cushing's syndrome and adrenal suppression associated with short-term use of a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor is low.(1) The manufacturer of nirmatrelvir/ritonavir recommends considering alternative corticosteroids including beclomethasone, prednisone, and prednisolone.(1) DISCUSSION: Concurrent use of a single dose of midazolam 2 mg, a CYP3A4 substrate, with nirmatrelvir-ritonavir (300 mg/100 mg twice daily for nine doses) increased the maximum concentration (Cmax) and area-under-curve (AUC) of midazolam by 37% and 143%, respectively.(1) A study in 18 healthy subjects examined the effects of ritonavir (100 mg twice daily) on fluticasone nasal spray (200 mcg daily). In most subjects, fluticasone was undetectable (<10 pg/ml) when administered alone. In subjects in whom fluticasone was detectable when given alone, Cmax and area-under-curve AUC averaged 11.9 pg/ml and 8.43 pg x hr/ml, respectively. With concurrent ritonavir, fluticasone Cmax and AUC increased to 318 pg/ml and 3102.6 pg x hr/ml, respectively.(7,11,13) This reflects increases in Cmax and AUC by 25-fold and 350-fold, respectively.(3) The cortisol AUC decreased by 86%.(3-6) In a study in 10 healthy subjects, ritonavir (200 mg twice daily for 4 and 14 days) increased the AUC of a single dose of prednisolone by 1.41-fold and 1.30-fold, respectively, after 4 days and 14 days of ritonavir.(7) Selected steroids linked to this monograph include: budesonide, ciclesonide, dexamethasone, fluticasone, methylprednisolone, and triamcinolone.(8) |
PAXLOVID |
The following contraindication information is available for TRELEGY ELLIPTA (fluticasone furoate/umeclidinium bromide/vilanterol trifenat):
Drug contraindication overview.
*Primary treatment of status asthmaticus or other acute episodes of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or asthma where intensive measures are required. *Severe hypersensitivity to milk proteins or demonstrated hypersensitivity to fluticasone furoate, umeclidinium, vilanterol, or any of the excipients.
*Primary treatment of status asthmaticus or other acute episodes of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or asthma where intensive measures are required. *Severe hypersensitivity to milk proteins or demonstrated hypersensitivity to fluticasone furoate, umeclidinium, vilanterol, or any of the excipients.
There are 1 contraindications.
Absolute contraindication.
| Contraindication List |
|---|
| Congenital long QT syndrome |
There are 8 severe contraindications.
Adequate patient monitoring is recommended for safer drug use.
| Severe List |
|---|
| Active tuberculosis |
| Acute asthma attack |
| Chronic myocardial ischemia |
| Exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease |
| Hypokalemia |
| Ocular herpes simplex |
| Parasitic infection |
| Prolonged QT interval |
There are 14 moderate contraindications.
Clinically significant contraindication, where the condition can be managed or treated before the drug may be given safely.
| Moderate List |
|---|
| Angle-closure glaucoma |
| Benign prostatic hyperplasia |
| Bladder outflow obstruction |
| Cataracts |
| Diabetes mellitus |
| Hypertension |
| Hypothalamic-pituitary insufficiency |
| Open angle glaucoma |
| Oral candidiasis |
| Osteopenia |
| Osteoporosis |
| Seizure disorder |
| Thyrotoxicosis |
| Urinary retention |
The following adverse reaction information is available for TRELEGY ELLIPTA (fluticasone furoate/umeclidinium bromide/vilanterol trifenat):
Adverse reaction overview.
Patients with COPD: The most common adverse reactions (incidence >=1%) reported with fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol in clinical studies were upper respiratory tract infection, pneumonia, bronchitis, oral candidiasis, headache, back pain, arthralgia, influenza, sinusitis, pharyngitis, rhinitis, dysgeusia, constipation, urinary tract infection, diarrhea, gastroenteritis, oropharyngeal pain, cough, and dysphonia. Patients with asthma: The most common adverse reactions (incidence >=2%) reported with fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol in clinical studies were pharyngitis/nasopharyngitis, upper respiratory tract infection/viral upper respiratory tract infection, bronchitis, respiratory tract infection/viral respiratory tract infection, sinusitis/acute sinusitis, urinary tract infection, rhinitis, influenza, headache, and back pain.
Patients with COPD: The most common adverse reactions (incidence >=1%) reported with fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol in clinical studies were upper respiratory tract infection, pneumonia, bronchitis, oral candidiasis, headache, back pain, arthralgia, influenza, sinusitis, pharyngitis, rhinitis, dysgeusia, constipation, urinary tract infection, diarrhea, gastroenteritis, oropharyngeal pain, cough, and dysphonia. Patients with asthma: The most common adverse reactions (incidence >=2%) reported with fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol in clinical studies were pharyngitis/nasopharyngitis, upper respiratory tract infection/viral upper respiratory tract infection, bronchitis, respiratory tract infection/viral respiratory tract infection, sinusitis/acute sinusitis, urinary tract infection, rhinitis, influenza, headache, and back pain.
There are 37 severe adverse reactions.
| More Frequent | Less Frequent |
|---|---|
| None. |
Urinary retention |
| Rare/Very Rare |
|---|
|
Abnormal ECG Adrenocortical insufficiency Anaphylaxis Angioedema Atrial fibrillation Bronchitis Cardiac arrhythmia Cataracts Central serous chorioretinopathy Chest pain Esophageal candidiasis Extrasystoles Glaucoma Hypercortisolism Hyperglycemia Hypersensitivity angiitis Hypersensitivity drug reaction Hypertension Hypokalemia Hypothalamic-pituitary insufficiency Immunosuppression Influenza Ocular hypertension Ocular pain Osteopenia Osteoporosis Paradoxical bronchospasm Pneumonia Secondary angle-closure glaucoma Sinusitis Skin and skin structure infection Skin rash Supraventricular premature beats Supraventricular tachycardia Upper respiratory infection Urticaria |
There are 82 less severe adverse reactions.
| More Frequent | Less Frequent |
|---|---|
|
Arthralgia Bronchitis Cough Headache disorder Myalgia Oral candidiasis Pharyngeal candidiasis Pharyngitis Sinusitis Upper respiratory infection |
Back pain Chest pain Constipation Cough Diarrhea Dyspepsia Influenza Lower respiratory infection Muscle spasm Myalgia Nasal congestion Neck pain Nervousness Pain Palpitations Pharyngitis Tachycardia Toothache Tremor Upper abdominal pain Urinary tract infection Voice change |
| Rare/Very Rare |
|---|
|
Aggressive behavior Agitation Arthralgia Blurred vision Bruising Conjunctivitis Dental caries Dental discoloration Depression Diarrhea Dizziness Drowsy Dysgeusia Dyspepsia Dyspnea Dysuria Ecchymosis Eosinophilia Facial edema Fatigue Fever Hyperkinesis Hypertension Insomnia Irritability Laryngitis Muscle rigidity Musculoskeletal pain Nausea Ocular pain Oral candidiasis Pain in oropharynx Peripheral edema Pruritus of skin Rhinitis Rhinorrhea Sinusitis Skin rash Sleep disorder Sore throat Symptoms of anxiety Thrombophlebitis Toothache Urinary tract infection Urticaria Viral infection Voice change Vomiting Weight gain Xerostomia |
The following precautions are available for TRELEGY ELLIPTA (fluticasone furoate/umeclidinium bromide/vilanterol trifenat):
The safety and effectiveness of fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol have not been established in pediatric patients.
Contraindicated
Severe Precaution
Management or Monitoring Precaution
Contraindicated
| None |
Severe Precaution
| None |
Management or Monitoring Precaution
| None |
There are insufficient data on the use of fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol or the individual components in pregnant women to inform a drug-associated risk. In animal reproduction studies, no adverse developmental effects were observed when umeclidinium was administered via inhalation or subcutaneously to pregnant rats and rabbits at exposures approximately 40 and 150 times, respectively, the human exposure at the maximum recommended human daily inhaled dose. Fluticasone furoate and vilanterol administered by inhalation alone or in combination to pregnant rats during the period of organogenesis produced no fetal structural abnormalities.
In women with poorly or moderately controlled asthma, there is an increased risk of several perinatal outcomes such as pre-eclampsia in the mother and prematurity, low birth weight, and small for gestational age in the neonate. Closely monitor pregnant women and adjust medications as necessary to maintain optimal control of asthma. Fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol should be used during late gestation and labor only if the potential benefit justifies the potential for risks related to beta-agonists interfering with uterine contractility.
In women with poorly or moderately controlled asthma, there is an increased risk of several perinatal outcomes such as pre-eclampsia in the mother and prematurity, low birth weight, and small for gestational age in the neonate. Closely monitor pregnant women and adjust medications as necessary to maintain optimal control of asthma. Fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol should be used during late gestation and labor only if the potential benefit justifies the potential for risks related to beta-agonists interfering with uterine contractility.
There is no information available on the presence of fluticasone furoate, umeclidinium, or vilanterol in human milk; the effects of these drugs on the breastfed child or on milk production also are not known. Consider the developmental and health benefits of breastfeeding along with the mother's clinical need for fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol and any potential adverse effects on the breastfed child from the drugs or underlying maternal condition.
No dosage adjustment is required in geriatric patients. No overall differences in safety or effectiveness were observed between patients >=65 years of age and younger patients in clinical studies of fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol, and other reported clinical experience has not identified differences in responses betweenelderly and younger subjects. Based on available data, no dosage adjustment of fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol in geriatric patients is necessary, but greater sensitivity in some older individuals cannot be ruled out.
The following prioritized warning is available for TRELEGY ELLIPTA (fluticasone furoate/umeclidinium bromide/vilanterol trifenat):
No warning message for this drug.
No warning message for this drug.
The following icd codes are available for TRELEGY ELLIPTA (fluticasone furoate/umeclidinium bromide/vilanterol trifenat)'s list of indications:
| Bronchospasm prevention with COPD | |
| J44 | Other chronic obstructive pulmonary disease |
| J44.8 | Other specified chronic obstructive pulmonary disease |
| J44.89 | Other specified chronic obstructive pulmonary disease |
| J44.9 | Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, unspecified |
| Maintenance therapy for asthma | |
| J45 | Asthma |
| J45.2 | Mild intermittent asthma |
| J45.20 | Mild intermittent asthma, uncomplicated |
| J45.3 | Mild persistent asthma |
| J45.30 | Mild persistent asthma, uncomplicated |
| J45.4 | Moderate persistent asthma |
| J45.40 | Moderate persistent asthma, uncomplicated |
| J45.5 | Severe persistent asthma |
| J45.50 | Severe persistent asthma, uncomplicated |
| J45.9 | Other and unspecified asthma |
| J45.90 | Unspecified asthma |
| J45.909 | Unspecified asthma, uncomplicated |
Formulary Reference Tool