Anoro Ellipta

Drug overview for ANORO ELLIPTA (umeclidinium bromide/vilanterol trifenatate):

Generic name: UMECLIDINIUM BROMIDE/VILANTEROL TRIFENATATE (ue-ME-kli-DIN-ee-um/vye-LAN-ter-ol)
Drug class: Beta-Adrenergic Agents Long-Acting (Inhaled)
Therapeutic class: Respiratory Therapy Agents

Umeclidinium bromide and vilanterol trifenatate (umeclidinium/vilanterol) is a fixed-combination preparation containing a long-acting muscarinic antagonist (umeclidinium) and a long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonist (vilanterol trifenatate).

No enhanced Uses information available for this drug.

DRUG IMAGES

ANORO ELLIPTA 62.5-25 MCG INH

The following indications for ANORO ELLIPTA (umeclidinium bromide/vilanterol trifenatate) have been approved by the FDA:

Indications:
Bronchospasm prevention with COPD

Professional Synonyms:
COPD with bronchospasms prophylaxis

The following dosing information is available for ANORO ELLIPTA (umeclidinium bromide/vilanterol trifenatate):

Dosing
Administration
ANORO ELLIPTA
UMECLIDINIUM-VILANTEROL

Dosage of umeclidinium bromide is expressed in terms of umeclidinium. Dosage of vilanterol trifenatate is expressed in terms of vilanterol.

Umeclidinium/vilanterol is supplied with a disposable plastic inhaler containing 2 foil strips, each with 30 blisters (or 7 blisters in the institutional package). One strip contains umeclidinium (62.5 mcg per blister), and the other strip contains vilanterol (25 mcg per blister). A blister from each strip is used to create 1 dose.

After the inhaler is activated, the powder within a pair of blisters is exposed and dispersed into the air stream created by the patient's inhalation. The precise amount of drug delivered to the lungs with each activation of the inhaler device depends on patient factorssuch as inspiratory flow.

Umeclidinium bromide in fixed combination with vilanterol trifenatate (umeclidinium/vilanterol) is administered by oral inhalation once daily using a disposable inhaler that delivers a fixed combination of powdered umeclidinium bromide and vilanterol trifenatate from foil-wrapped blisters. Umeclidinium/vilanterol should be administered at the same time every day, and should not be used more than once every 24 hours. If a dose is missed, take it as soon as it is remembered.

Take the next dose at the usual time. Do not take 2 doses at the same time. Prior to use, store umeclidinium/vilanterol in the original foil tray in a dry place away from direct heat and sunlightat room temperature (20-25degreesC) with excursions permitted between 15-30degreesC; the product should only be removed from the tray immediately before initial use.

The date the tray is opened and the discard date (6 weeks after opening) should be written on the inhaler label. The number of doses remaining in the inhaler is displayed on the counter located on the front of the device. The cover of the inhaler should not be opened until immediately before use; to avoid wasting doses, the inhaler cover should not be closed again until the dose has been inhaled.

When the cover of the inhaler is opened fully to expose the mouthpiece, a click should be heard. If the dose counter does not advance when the click is heard, the dose has not been properly prepared, and the patient should contact the clinician. Before inhaling the dose, the patient should exhale completely, but should not exhale into the mouthpiece of the inhaler.

The patient should then place the mouthpiece between the lips, close lips firmly around it, and inhale deeply through the inhaler with a steady breath; the patient should not inhale through the nose and should not block the air vent with their fingers. The patient should remove the inhaler from the mouth, hold the breath for about 3-4 seconds (or as long as comfortable), and then exhale slowly and gently. While some patients may taste or feel a dose of drug delivered from the inhaler, patients should be instructed not to use another dose even if they do not perceive that the dose has been delivered.

The inhaler does not need to be cleaned after use. However, if desired, the mouthpiece can be cleaned with a dry tissue. The inhaler should be discarded 6 weeks after removal of the inhaler from the foil tray or when the counter reads "0".

Dosing information for ANORO ELLIPTA
DRUG LABEL	DOSING TYPE	DOSING INSTRUCTIONS
ANORO ELLIPTA 62.5-25 MCG INH	Maintenance	Adults inhale 1 puff by inhalation route once daily at the same time each day

Generic dosing information for UMECLIDINIUM-VILANTEROL
DRUG LABEL	DOSING TYPE	DOSING INSTRUCTIONS
UMECLIDINIUM-VILANTERO 62.5-25	Maintenance	Adults inhale 1 puff by inhalation route once daily at the same time each day

The following drug interaction information is available for ANORO ELLIPTA (umeclidinium bromide/vilanterol trifenatate):

Contraindicated
Severe
Moderate

There are 0 contraindications.

There are 5 severe interactions. These drug interactions can produce serious consequences in most patients. Actions required for severe interactions include, but are not limited to, discontinuing one or both agents, adjusting dosage, altering administration scheduling, and providing additional patient monitoring. Review the full interaction monograph for more information.

Drug Interaction	Drug Names
Ergot Alkaloids/Sympathomimetics SEVERITY LEVEL: 2-Severe Interaction: Action is required to reduce the risk of severe adverse interaction. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Concurrent use of ergot alkaloids and sympathomimetics may result in additive or synergistic effect on peripheral blood vessels. CLINICAL EFFECTS: Concurrent use of ergot alkaloids and sympathomimetics may result in increased blood pressure due to peripheral vasoconstriction. PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: When possible, avoid the concurrent use of ergot alkaloids and sympathomimetics. If concurrent use is warranted, monitor blood pressure and for signs of vasoconstriction. Decreasing the dose of one or both drugs may be necessary. DISCUSSION: There have been reports of severe vasoconstriction resulting in gangrene in patients receiving intravenous ergonovine with dopamine or norepinephrine.	DIHYDROERGOTAMINE MESYLATE, ERGOLOID MESYLATES, ERGOMAR, ERGOTAMINE TARTRATE, ERGOTAMINE-CAFFEINE, METHYLERGONOVINE MALEATE, METHYSERGIDE MALEATE, MIGERGOT, MIGRANAL, TRUDHESA
Selected Inhalation Anesthetic Agents/Sympathomimetics SEVERITY LEVEL: 2-Severe Interaction: Action is required to reduce the risk of severe adverse interaction. MECHANISM OF ACTION: The exact mechanism is unknown. The anesthetics produce conduction changes that increase impulse re-entry into the myocardial tissue.(1) The anesthetics' ability to precipitate arrhythmias is enhanced by elevated arterial blood pressure, tachycardia, hypercapnia, and/or hypoxia, events that stimulate the release of endogenous catecholamines.(1) CLINICAL EFFECTS: Concurrent use of inhalation anesthetic agents and sympathomimetics may result in ventricular arrhythmias or sudden blood pressure and heart rate increase during surgery.(2) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: Monitor blood pressure and avoid use of sympathomimetics in patients being treated with anesthetics on the day of surgery.(2) Intravenous use of epinephrine during surgery with halothane and related halogenated general anesthetics should be strongly discouraged. When intravenous epinephrine is necessary, nitrous oxide anesthesia supplemented with ether, muscle relaxants, or opioids should be used instead of halothane.(3,4) Epinephrine may safely be used subcutaneously with the following precautions: the patient is adequately ventilated to prevent hypoxia or respiratory acidosis; the total dose of epinephrine is limited to 100 mcg/10 minute period or 300 mcg/hour in adults, 3.5 mcg/Kg in infants, 2.5 mcg/Kg in children up to two years of age, and 1.45 mcg/Kg in children over two years of age; a minimum effective concentration of anesthetic is maintained; the drugs are not co-administered in patients with hypertension or other cardiovascular disorders; and the cardiac rhythm is continuously monitored during and after injection.(3-10) If arrhythmias occur after the administration of the epinephrine, the drugs of choice are lidocaine or propranolol, depending on the type of arrhythmia.(1) DISCUSSION: Administration of epinephrine during halothane anesthesia may may lead to serious ventricular arrhythmias.(3-6,11-18) This has occurred when epinephrine was administered intravenously,(6) when it was administered with lidocaine as a dental block,(11,14) or when it was administered supraperiosteally.(5) Norepinephrine has been shown to interact with halothane in a manner similar to epinephrine.(1) In two case reports, patients were given terbutaline (0.25 to 0.35 mg) for wheezing following induction of anesthesia with halothane. One patient's heart rate increased from 68 to 100 beats/minute, and the ECG showed premature ventricular contractions and bigeminy, while the other patient developed multiple unifocal premature ventricular contractions and bigeminy. The arrhythmias resolved in both patients following lidocaine administration.(19) Although not documented, isoproterenol causes effects on the heart similar to terbutaline(20) and would probably interact with halothane in a similar manner. Other inhalation anesthetics that increase the incidence of arrhythmias with epinephrine include chloroform,(20) methoxyflurane,(20) and enflurane.(12) A similar interaction may be expected between the other inhalation anesthetics and sympathomimetics.	DESFLURANE, FORANE, ISOFLURANE, SEVOFLURANE, SUPRANE, TERRELL, ULTANE
Pramlintide/Inhaled Anticholinergics SEVERITY LEVEL: 2-Severe Interaction: Action is required to reduce the risk of severe adverse interaction. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Pramlintide slows gastric emptying. Anticholinergics may result in additive or synergistic effects.(1) CLINICAL EFFECTS: Concurrent use of pramlintide and anticholinergics may result in additive or synergistic effects.(1) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: The manufacturer of pramlintide states that pramlintide therapy should not be considered in patients requiring the use of drugs that stimulate gastrointestinal motility or in patients taking drugs that alter gastrointestinal motility.(1) Patients receiving inhaled anticholinergics should be evaluated for signs of systemic effects, which may include constipation. DISCUSSION: Patients using drugs that alter gastrointestinal motility have not been studied in clinical trials for pramlintide.(1) Constipation has been reported as a side effect of inhaled anticholinergic agents such as ipratropium(2) and tiotropium.(3)	SYMLINPEN 120, SYMLINPEN 60
Beta-2 Agonists/Non-Cardioselective Beta-Blockers SEVERITY LEVEL: 2-Severe Interaction: Action is required to reduce the risk of severe adverse interaction. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Non-cardioselective beta-blockers and beta-2 agonists may antagonize the effects of each other. CLINICAL EFFECTS: Diminished response to either the beta-agonist, beta-blocker, or both may occur. Beta-blockers may also induce bronchospasm. PREDISPOSING FACTORS: Patients receiving beta-2 agonists for the treatment of asthma may be more at risk for bronchospasm. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: If possible, avoid beta-blocker therapy in asthmatic patients requiring beta-2 agonist therapy. If beta-blocker therapy is required, use a cardio-selective beta-blocker. For timolol ophthalmic drops, counsel patients to apply pressure to the inner corner of the eye after administration to prevent systemic absorption. Monitor patients for decreased effects of either agent, such as increased need for/use of beta-2 agonists or increased heart rate or blood pressure. DISCUSSION: Many patients with asymptomatic or mild reactive airways disease tolerate beta-blockers well. Most patients with COPD do not have bronchospastic component to their illness and may be given beta-blockers. Heart failure treatment guidelines recommend beta-blockers in the presence of COPD. Non-selective beta-blockers have been shown to have a negative effect on lung function (FEV1) and airway hyperresponsiveness (AHR) in patients with asthma and COPD.(1) An open-label study using the nonselective beta blocker nadolol showed no effect on salbutamol in 10 patients with mild asthma not on controller therapy.(2) A study in 8 healthy men showed that long acting propranolol (160 mg) only effected airway dilation at the 200 mcg salbutamol dose. The 800 mcg and 1600 mcg dose were unaffected. However, penbutolol prevented any significant airway dilation with all doses of salbutamol.(3) In a double blind, three-way, crossover study, 44% (7/16 patients) of patients taking metoprolol showed a greater than 20% decrease in FEV1 compared to 19% (3 patients) after dilevalol and 6% (1 patient) after placebo. Dilevalol and metoprolol significantly inhibited isoproterenol response compared to placebo.(4) A double-blind, randomized, crossover study in 10 asthmatic patients showed that intravenous propranolol produced marked symptomatic bronchoconstriction. Only a slight but significant inhibition of bronchomotor sensitivity to isoproterenol was noted during esmolol infusion.(5) In 18 patients with reversible bronchial asthma, labetalol caused a significant increase in FEV1 and metoprolol caused a significant decrease in FEV1. Concurrent administration of isoproterenol and labetalol caused a further increase in FEV1. The effect of isoproterenol was decreased by metoprolol (100, 200mg).(6) In one study propranolol (0.06mg/kg IV) was shown to almost completely block the effects of isoproterenol in asthmatics. Metoprolol (0.12mg/kg IV) did not affect isoproterenol.(7) Studies have shown that cardioselective beta-blockers are safe for patients with asthma and COPD.(8,9,10) Nebivolol and celiprolol significantly decreased FEV1. Inhalation of albuterol (up to 800mcg) significantly improved FEV1, but the values after nebivolol and celiprolol administration were lower than the initial values.(11) Administration of metoprolol did not cause any respiratory problems in 9 asthmatic patients. There was no significant difference between the metoprolol and placebo groups in the respiratory response to an isoproterenol aerosol in 24 asthmatic patients.(12) Eight male asthmatic patients were given 10 mg bisoprolol, 20 mg bisoprolol, and 100 mg metoprolol. Both bisoprolol and metoprolol caused bronchoconstriction measured by a significant fall in PEFR (peak expiratory flow rate). Terbutaline was able to reverse bronchoconstriction in all patients.(13) A double blind, placebo-controlled study analyzed the use of atenolol 100mg, metoprolol 100mg, or acebutolol 400 mg in 8 asthmatic patients before and after exercise. All three drugs reduced significantly FEV1 and PEFR. Administration of terbutaline improved all respiratory indices.(14) A double-blind crossover trial in 10 asthmatic patients showed that a single IV dose of atenolol 3mg caused slight impairment of ventilatory function. A dose of salbutamol by inhalation was able to reverse the bronchial effect of atenolol.(15) Propranolol (80mg/day), oxprenolol (80mg/day), atenolol (100mg/day), and celiprolol 200mg/day were given to 10 asthmatic patients in a randomized, crossover design with a two week washout period between each drug. The non-beta 1 selective beta blockers (propranolol, oxprenolol) caused a significant reduction in FEV1 and inhibited the bronchodilator response to inhaled salbutamol. Atenolol and celiprolol (beta1 selective beta blockers) did not significantly affect respiratory function or antagonize salbutamol effects.(16) A double blind, randomized, within patient, placebo-controlled study compared the cardioselective beta-blocker atenolol to the non-selective propranolol. Atenolol caused a significantly less drop in FEV1 compared to propranolol. The effect of isoprenaline plus the beta blockers were also studied. Both atenolol and propranolol effected isoprenaline FEV1 dose response curves but the greatest displacement was seen with propranolol.(17) The pulmonary effects of celiprolol 200 mg, celiprolol 400mg, propranolol 40mg, atenolol 100 mg were evaluated in 34 asthmatic patients. Propranolol and atenolol caused significant reductions in pulmonary function. Propranolol pretreatment caused a significant reduction in the effect of the bronchodilator. Celiprolol did not antagonize the bronchodilators.(18) A double-blind, placebo controlled, randomized, crossover design study studied the effects of propranolol 80mg or celiprolol 200 or 400mg on pulmonary function. Propranolol produced a significant decrease in FEV1 and FVC. Celiprolol and placebo had similar results. The effect of aerosolized terbutaline was also measured. Even at supratherapeutic doses, terbutaline was unable to restore pulmonary function parameters to baseline levels after treatment with propranolol. Terbutaline caused further bronchodilation after administration of celiprolol.(19) Eleven asthmatic patients showed significant bronchoconstriction in small airways after propranolol 40mg and pindolol 2.5mg in a double blind, randomized trial. Large airways only showed bronchoconstriction with propranolol. Terbutaline 0.5mg subcutaneous was given after pretreatment with propranolol and pindolol. The bronchodilator effect of terbutaline on large airways was diminished after both propranolol and timolol.(20)	BETAPACE, BETAPACE AF, BETIMOL, BRIMONIDINE TARTRATE-TIMOLOL, CARVEDILOL, CARVEDILOL ER, COMBIGAN, COREG, COREG CR, CORGARD, COSOPT, COSOPT PF, DORZOLAMIDE-TIMOLOL, HEMANGEOL, INDERAL LA, INDERAL XL, INNOPRAN XL, ISTALOL, LABETALOL HCL, LABETALOL HCL-WATER, NADOLOL, PINDOLOL, PROPRANOLOL HCL, PROPRANOLOL HCL ER, PROPRANOLOL-HYDROCHLOROTHIAZID, SOTALOL, SOTALOL AF, SOTALOL HCL, SOTYLIZE, TIMOLOL, TIMOLOL MALEATE, TIMOLOL-BIMATOPROST, TIMOLOL-BRIMONI-DORZOL-BIMATOP, TIMOLOL-BRIMONIDIN-DORZOLAMIDE, TIMOLOL-DORZOLAMIDE-BIMATOPRST, TIMOPTIC OCUDOSE
Iobenguane I 123/Agents that Affect Catecholamines SEVERITY LEVEL: 2-Severe Interaction: Action is required to reduce the risk of severe adverse interaction. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Many compounds that reduce catecholamine uptake or that deplete catecholamine stores may interfere with iobenguane uptake into cells.(1) CLINICAL EFFECTS: Compounds that reduce catecholamine uptake or that deplete catecholamine stores may interfere with imaging completed with iobenguane.(1) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: Discuss the use of agents that affect catecholamines. Discontinue drugs that reduce catecholamine uptake or deplete catecholamine stores prior to imaging with iobenguane. Before imaging with iobenguane, discontinue agents that affect catecholamines for at least 5 biological half-lives, as clinically tolerated.(1) DISCUSSION: Many agents may reduce catecholamine uptake or deplete catecholamine stores.(1) Examples include: - CNS stimulants or amphetamines (e.g. cocaine, methylphenidate, dextroamphetamine) - norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitors (e.g. phentermine) - norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibitors (e.g. tramadol) - monoamine oxidase inhibitors (e.g. phenelzine, linezolid) - central monoamine depleting drugs (e.g. reserpine) - non-select beta adrenergic blocking drugs (e.g. labetalol) - alpha agonists or alpha/beta agonists (e.g. pseudoephedrine, phenylephrine, ephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, naphazoline) - tricyclic antidepressants or norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (e.g. amitriptyline, bupropion, duloxetine, mirtazapine, venlafaxine) - botanicals that may inhibit reuptake of norepinephrine, serotonin or dopamine (e.g. ephedra, ma huang, St. John's Wort, yohimbine)	ADREVIEW

There are 4 moderate interactions. The clinician should assess the patient’s characteristics and take action as needed. Actions required for moderate interactions include, but are not limited to, discontinuing one or both agents, adjusting dosage, altering administration.

Drug Interaction	Drug Names
Solid Oral Potassium Tablets/Inhaled Anticholinergics SEVERITY LEVEL: 3-Moderate Interaction: Assess the risk to the patient and take action as needed. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Concentrated potassium may damage the lining of the GI tract. Anticholinergics delay gastric emptying, resulting in the potassium product remaining in the gastrointestinal tract for a longer period of time.(1-16) CLINICAL EFFECTS: Use of solid oral dosage forms of potassium in patients treated with inhaled anticholinergics could potentially result in gastrointestinal erosions, ulcers, stenosis and bleeding.(1-16) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: Diseases or conditions which may increase risk for GI damage include: preexisting dysphagia, strictures, cardiomegaly, diabetic gastroparesis, elderly status, or insufficient oral intake to allow dilution of potassium.(1-10,21) Other drugs which may add to risk for GI damage include: nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), bisphosphonates, or tetracyclines.(21) PATIENT MANAGEMENT: Regulatory agency and manufacturer recommendations regarding this interaction: - In the US, all solid oral dosage forms (including tablets and extended release capsules) of potassium are contraindicated in patients receiving anticholinergics at sufficient dosages to result in systemic effects.(2-8) Patients receiving such anticholinergic therapy should use a liquid form of potassium chloride.(2) - In Canada, solid oral potassium is contraindicated in any patient with a cause for arrest or delay in tablet/capsule passage through the gastrointestinal tract and the manufacturers recommend caution with concurrent anticholinergic medications.(1,9-10) Evaluate each patient for predisposing factors which may increase risk for GI damage. In patients with multiple risk factors for harm, consider use of liquid potassium supplements, if tolerated. For patients receiving concomitant therapy, assure any potassium dose form is taken after meals with a large glass of water or other fluid. To decrease potassium concentration in the GI tract, limit each dose to 20 meq; if more than 20 meq daily is required, give in divided doses.(2) If concurrent therapy is warranted, monitor patients receiving concurrent therapy for signs of blood loss, including decreased hemoglobin, hematocrit, fecal occult blood, and/or decreased blood pressure and promptly evaluate patients with any symptoms. Patients should be instructed to immediately report any difficulty swallowing, abdominal pain, distention, severe vomiting, or gastrointestinal bleeding. Instruct patients to report any signs and symptoms of bleeding, such as unusual bleeding from the gums or nose; unusual bruising; red or black, tarry stools; red, pink or dark brown urine; acute abdominal or joint pain and/or swelling. DISCUSSION: In clinical trials, there was a higher incidence of gastric and duodenal lesions in patients receiving a high dose of a wax-matrix controlled-release formulation with a concurrent anticholinergic agent. Some lesions were asymptomatic and not accompanied by bleeding, as shown by a lack of positive Hemoccult tests.(1-17) Several studies suggest that the incidence of gastric and duodenal lesions may be less with the microencapsulated formulation of potassium chloride.(14-17) Constipation has been reported as a side effect of inhaled anticholinergic agents such as ipratropium(22) and tiotropium.(23)	KLOR-CON 10, KLOR-CON 8, KLOR-CON M10, KLOR-CON M15, KLOR-CON M20, POTASSIUM CHLORIDE, POTASSIUM CITRATE ER, UROCIT-K
Solid Oral Potassium Capsules/Inhaled Anticholinergics SEVERITY LEVEL: 3-Moderate Interaction: Assess the risk to the patient and take action as needed. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Concentrated potassium may damage the lining of the GI tract. Anticholinergics delay gastric emptying, resulting in the potassium product remaining in the gastrointestinal tract for a longer period of time.(1-16) CLINICAL EFFECTS: Use of solid oral dosage forms of potassium in patients treated with inhaled anticholinergics could potentially result in gastrointestinal erosions, ulcers, stenosis and bleeding.(1-16) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: Diseases or conditions which may increase risk for GI damage include: preexisting dysphagia, strictures, cardiomegaly, diabetic gastroparesis, elderly status, or insufficient oral intake to allow dilution of potassium.(1-10,21) Other drugs which may add to risk for GI damage include: nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), bisphosphonates, or tetracyclines.(21) PATIENT MANAGEMENT: Regulatory agency and manufacturer recommendations regarding this interaction: - In the US, all solid oral dosage forms (including tablets and extended release capsules) of potassium are contraindicated in patients receiving anticholinergics at sufficient dosages to result in systemic effects.(2-8) Patients receiving such anticholinergic therapy should use a liquid form of potassium chloride.(2) - In Canada, solid oral potassium is contraindicated in any patient with a cause for arrest or delay in tablet/capsule passage through the gastrointestinal tract and the manufacturers recommend caution with concurrent anticholinergic medications.(1,9-10) Evaluate each patient for predisposing factors which may increase risk for GI damage. In patients with multiple risk factors for harm, consider use of liquid potassium supplements, if tolerated. For patients receiving concomitant therapy, assure any potassium dose form is taken after meals with a large glass of water or other fluid. To decrease potassium concentration in the GI tract, limit each dose to 20 meq; if more than 20 meq daily is required, give in divided doses.(2) If concurrent therapy is warranted, monitor patients receiving concurrent therapy for signs of blood loss, including decreased hemoglobin, hematocrit, fecal occult blood, and/or decreased blood pressure and promptly evaluate patients with any symptoms. Patients should be instructed to immediately report any difficulty swallowing, abdominal pain, distention, severe vomiting, or gastrointestinal bleeding. Instruct patients to report any signs and symptoms of bleeding, such as unusual bleeding from the gums or nose; unusual bruising; red or black, tarry stools; red, pink or dark brown urine; acute abdominal or joint pain and/or swelling. DISCUSSION: In clinical trials, there was a higher incidence of gastric and duodenal lesions in patients receiving a high dose of a wax-matrix controlled-release formulation with a concurrent anticholinergic agent. Some lesions were asymptomatic and not accompanied by bleeding, as shown by a lack of positive Hemoccult tests.(1-17) Several studies suggest that the incidence of gastric and duodenal lesions may be less with the microencapsulated formulation of potassium chloride.(14-17) Constipation has been reported as a side effect of inhaled anticholinergic agents such as ipratropium(22) and tiotropium.(23)	POTASSIUM CHLORIDE
Inhaled Direct-Acting Sympathomimetics/Tricyclic Compounds SEVERITY LEVEL: 3-Moderate Interaction: Assess the risk to the patient and take action as needed. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Unknown. However, it is speculated that direct-acting sympathomimetic amines have an enhanced effect due to tricyclic blockage of norepinephrine reuptake. CLINICAL EFFECTS: Increased effect of direct acting sympathomimetics. PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: The concurrent use of inhaled sympathomimetics and tricyclic compounds or the use of these agents within 14 days of each other should be approached with extreme caution. DISCUSSION: Epinephrine and other direct-acting sympathomimetic amines exert enhanced cardiovascular effects (e.g., arrhythmias, hypertension, and tachycardia) in individuals concurrently receiving or previously treated with tricyclic antidepressants. Protriptyline, amitriptyline, and desipramine have also been reported to interact with direct-acting sympathomimetics. Similarity between cyclobenzaprine and the tricyclic antidepressants consideration of tricyclic antidepressant interactions for cyclobenzaprine.	AMITRIPTYLINE HCL, AMOXAPINE, AMRIX, ANAFRANIL, CHLORDIAZEPOXIDE-AMITRIPTYLINE, CLOMIPRAMINE HCL, CYCLOBENZAPRINE HCL, CYCLOBENZAPRINE HCL ER, CYCLOPAK, CYCLOTENS, DESIPRAMINE HCL, DOXEPIN HCL, FEXMID, IMIPRAMINE HCL, IMIPRAMINE PAMOATE, NOPIOID-LMC KIT, NORPRAMIN, NORTRIPTYLINE HCL, PAMELOR, PERPHENAZINE-AMITRIPTYLINE, PROTRIPTYLINE HCL, SILENOR, TRIMIPRAMINE MALEATE
Methacholine/Beta-Agonists; Anticholinergics; Theophylline SEVERITY LEVEL: 3-Moderate Interaction: Assess the risk to the patient and take action as needed. MECHANISM OF ACTION: Beta-agonists, anticholinergics, and theophylline may inhibit the action of methacholine on the airway.(1) CLINICAL EFFECTS: The result of the methacholine challenge test may not be accurate.(1) PREDISPOSING FACTORS: None determined. PATIENT MANAGEMENT: The following drugs should be held before a methacholine challenge for the the duration indicated:(1) - short-acting beta-agonists: 6 hours - long-acting beta-agonists: 36 hours - short-acting anti-cholinergics: 12 hours - long-acting anti-cholinergics: at least 168 hours (7 days) - oral theophylline: 12-48 hours DISCUSSION: Beta-agonists, anticholinergics, and theophylline may inhibit the action of methacholine on the airway and cause inaccurate test results.	METHACHOLINE CHLORIDE, PROVOCHOLINE

The following contraindication information is available for ANORO ELLIPTA (umeclidinium bromide/vilanterol trifenatate):

Overview
Contraindicated
Severe
Moderate

Drug contraindication overview.

*Severe hypersensitivity to milk proteins or known hypersensitivity to umeclidinium, vilanterol, or any ingredients in the formulation. *Use of long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists (LABA), including vilanterol, without an inhaled corticosteroid is contraindicated in patients with asthma. Umeclidinium/vilanterol is not indicated for the treatment of asthma.

There are 2 contraindications. Absolute contraindication.

Contraindication List
Acute asthma attack
Congenital long QT syndrome

There are 3 severe contraindications. Adequate patient monitoring is recommended for safer drug use.

Severe List
Chronic myocardial ischemia
Hypokalemia
Prolonged QT interval

There are 8 moderate contraindications. Clinically significant contraindication, where the condition can be managed or treated before the drug may be given safely.

Moderate List
Angle-closure glaucoma
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Bladder outflow obstruction
Diabetes mellitus
Hypertension
Seizure disorder
Thyrotoxicosis
Urinary retention

The following adverse reaction information is available for ANORO ELLIPTA (umeclidinium bromide/vilanterol trifenatate):

Overview
Severe
Less Severe

Adverse reaction overview.

The most common adverse reactions (>=1%) reported with umeclidinium/vilanterol in clinical studies were pharyngitis, sinusitis, lower respiratory tract infection, constipation, diarrhea, pain in extremity, muscle spasms, neck pain, and chest pain.

There are 20 severe adverse reactions.

More Frequent	Less Frequent
None.	Urinary retention

Rare/Very Rare
Abnormal ECG Anaphylaxis Angioedema Atrial fibrillation Bronchitis Cardiac arrhythmia Chest pain Extrasystoles Hyperglycemia Hypersensitivity drug reaction Hypertension Hypokalemia Ocular hypertension Paradoxical bronchospasm Secondary angle-closure glaucoma Sinusitis Supraventricular premature beats Supraventricular tachycardia Upper respiratory infection

There are 42 less severe adverse reactions.

More Frequent	Less Frequent
Arthralgia Cough Headache disorder Pharyngitis Upper respiratory infection	Chest pain Constipation Cough Diarrhea Dyspepsia Influenza Lower respiratory infection Muscle spasm Myalgia Nasal congestion Neck pain Nervousness Pain Palpitations Pharyngitis Tachycardia Toothache Tremor Upper abdominal pain Urinary tract infection

Rare/Very Rare
Arthralgia Blurred vision Conjunctivitis Dysgeusia Dysuria Fever Ocular pain Oral candidiasis Pain in oropharynx Peripheral edema Pruritus of skin Sinusitis Skin rash Symptoms of anxiety Urticaria Voice change Xerostomia

The following precautions are available for ANORO ELLIPTA (umeclidinium bromide/vilanterol trifenatate):

Pediatric
Pregnant
Lactation
Geriatric

The safety and efficacy of umeclidinium/vilanterol have not been established in pediatric patients; not indicated for use in this patient population.

Contraindicated

None

Severe Precaution

None

Management or Monitoring Precaution

None

There are insufficient data on the use of umeclidinium/vilanterol or theindividual components in pregnant women. In animal reproduction studies, no adverse developmental effects were observed when umeclidinium was administered via inhalation or subcutaneously to pregnant rats and rabbits at exposures approximately 50 and 200 times, respectively, the human exposure at the maximum recommended human daily inhaled dose. Vilanterol did not produce fetal structural abnormalities when administered via inhalation to pregnant rats and rabbits at exposures approximately 70 times the maximum recommended human inhaled dose. Umeclidinium/vilanterol should be used during late gestation and labor only if the potential benefit justifies the potential for risks related to beta-agonists interfering with uterine contractility.

It is not known whether umeclidinium or vilanterol is distributed into milk or whether the drugs can affect milk production or the breast-fed child; umeclidinium has been detected in the plasma of the offspring of lactating rats suggesting its presence in maternal milk. Consider the developmental and health benefits of breast-feeding along with the mother's clinical need for umeclidinium/vilanterol and any potential adverse effects on the breast-fed child from the drugs or underlying maternal condition.

Clinical trials of umeclidinium/vilanterol in patients with COPD included 2,143 geriatric patients >=65 years of age and 478 geriatric patients >=75 years of age. No overall differences in safety, efficacy, or response have been observed between these patients and younger patients. Although dosage adjustment is not necessary in geriatric patients, greater sensitivity in some older individuals cannot be ruled out.

Bronchospasm prevention with COPD
J44	Other chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
J44.8	Other specified chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
J44.89	Other specified chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
J44.9	Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, unspecified